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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Wed Mar 18, 2009, 10:29am
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NBA "first to touch" rule

If a non dribbling offensive player voluntarily goes out of bounds then reestablishes position inbounds can that player be the first to touch a pass from teammate? In reading the official NBA rulebook, I could not find answer to this EXACT situation. I am looking for NBA ruling only. Thanks
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Old Wed Mar 18, 2009, 10:37am
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Originally Posted by Victoria View Post
If a non dribbling offensive player voluntarily goes out of bounds then reestablishes position inbounds can that player be the first to touch a pass from teammate? In reading the official NBA rulebook, I could not find answer to this EXACT situation. I am looking for NBA ruling only. Thanks
yes as long as he re-establishes position, but that is only if he is a non dribbler.
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Old Wed Mar 18, 2009, 05:21pm
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Originally Posted by btaylor64 View Post
yes as long as he re-establishes position, but that is only if he is a non dribbler.
Perhaps you could elucidate the requirements as to reestablishing position for NBA purposes
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Old Wed Mar 18, 2009, 06:19pm
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Originally Posted by justacoach View Post
Perhaps you could elucidate the requirements as to reestablishing position for NBA purposes
In the NBE, a player must have at least one endorsement inbounds before touching the ball.
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Old Thu Mar 19, 2009, 12:03am
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Originally Posted by Mark Padgett View Post
In the NBE, a player must have at least one endorsement inbounds before touching the ball.
That sounds about right. haha

no but he is right if he is referring to his shoe as the "endorsement". all you need is one sneaker down with nothing touching out of bounds to be established.
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Old Thu Mar 19, 2009, 12:59am
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Originally Posted by btaylor64 View Post
That sounds about right. haha

no but he is right if he is referring to his shoe as the "endorsement". all you need is one sneaker down with nothing touching out of bounds to be established.
Does rule really specify that one FOOT must return inbounds?

Just to be clear, are you saying that diving back in and landing on one's backside, but not having either foot touch the inbounds area of the court isn't okay?

I seriously doubt that you have correctly described the details of the rule.
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Old Thu Mar 19, 2009, 01:08am
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Originally Posted by Nevadaref View Post
Does rule really specify that one FOOT must return inbounds?

Just to be clear, are you saying that diving back in and landing on one's backside, but not having either foot touch the inbounds area of the court isn't okay?

I seriously doubt that you have correctly described the details of the rule.
well as i stated earlier, he has "re-establish" himself and that just means not being out of bounds and not being in the air when you touch the ball.
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Old Thu Mar 19, 2009, 01:33am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by btaylor64 View Post
well as i stated earlier, he has "re-establish" himself and that just means not being out of bounds and not being in the air when you touch the ball.
Methinks a person, such as yourself, with profound NBA rules knowledge can do better than this. Wanna provide an appropriate NBA rules cite?
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Old Thu Mar 19, 2009, 09:50am
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Originally Posted by btaylor64 View Post
well as i stated earlier, he has "re-establish" himself and that just means not being out of bounds and not being in the air when you touch the ball.
The officials here and most of the coaches understand what you mean, but you could not have possibly meant what you wrote.
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Old Thu Mar 19, 2009, 05:08pm
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Originally Posted by justacoach View Post
Methinks a person, such as yourself, with profound NBA rules knowledge can do better than this. Wanna provide an appropriate NBA rules cite?
2008-2009 NBA Casebook Play 246:

During the course of play, Player A1 leaves the playing court and is out-of-bounds. He leaps from out-of-bounds (never establishing himself within the playing court area), touches a loose ball and then lands on the court. Is this legal?

Illegal. Player A1 must establish himself on the playing court before he is allowed to touch the ball. With Player A1 still in the air and coming from out-of-bounds, he is still considered to be out-of-bounds.

Rule 8 - Section I



Is this good enough?
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Old Thu Mar 19, 2009, 05:20pm
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Originally Posted by Nevadaref View Post
Just to be clear, are you saying that diving back in and landing on one's backside, but not having either foot touch the inbounds area of the court isn't okay?
As long as the endorsement on the backside of the uniform is adidass.
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