Question from 2007 Part II

[JS 20]

The resumption-of-play procedure starts over in each situation and a violation in one situation does not carry over to another.

I'm more interested in what it could mean for it to carry over. This one is confusing to me for some reason. Thanks!

[Adam]

Originally Posted by JS 20

The resumption-of-play procedure starts over in each situation and a violation in one situation does not carry over to another.

I'm more interested in what it could mean for it to carry over. This one is confusing to me for some reason. Thanks!

Here's a situation.

Timeout, Team A getting the ball is late coming out of the huddle. You go to ROP and put the ball on the floor. Team A comes out and quickly performs their throwin without a violation.

Two minutes later, same team is late coming out of the huddle. You need to use ROP again; does the fact that you used it 2 minutes ago matter? Do you go straight to the violation?

No, you start from scratch; there is no carry over.

[JS 20]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

Here's a situation.

Timeout, Team A getting the ball is late coming out of the huddle. You go to ROP and put the ball on the floor. Team A comes out and quickly performs their throwin without a violation.

Two minutes later, same team is late coming out of the huddle. You need to use ROP again; does the fact that you used it 2 minutes ago matter? Do you go straight to the violation?

No, you start from scratch; there is no carry over.

Ok that makes sense but the question indicates that in your scenario, Team A DOES violate.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by JS 20

Ok that makes sense but the question indicates that in your scenario, Team A DOES violate.

So what if they do? Team B gets the ball.

The next time that they are late do you immediately charge a techincal foul without first having the team violate?

The answer is no.