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Old Wed Nov 19, 2008, 01:11pm
Nevadaref Nevadaref is offline
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Join Date: Nov 2002
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Quote:
Originally Posted by JS 20 View Post
Ok that makes sense but the question indicates that in your scenario, Team A DOES violate.
So what if they do? Team B gets the ball.

The next time that they are late do you immediately charge a techincal foul without first having the team violate?

The answer is no.
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