quote:
Originally posted by TomHarger on 02-18-2000 05:26 PM
This may seem trivial, but there was actually an argument about this question in a pickup game. Player A (Team A) was saving the ball while going out of bounds. He threw the ball to Player B (Team B) who already had both feet out of bounds. Is this a violation?
Some players thought that since Player B was already out of bounds, the ball should belong to Team B (somehow saying Player B was not part of the play). Thanks
It depends on what rules you are using in your driveway. Under the rules of NF, NCAA, NBA, WNBA, CBA and FIBA, it is A's ball for the throwin because B1 caused the ball to be OOB.
However, if you're using the rules that most coaches think they know, then it's probably "a reach", an "overtheback", an "alloverem", a "gettemoffuvem" or a "hecantdothat". (can you tell I've had a lot of vocal morons, er, I mean coaches, lately?)
Fri Feb 18, 2000, 06:34pm
Threaded Mode
