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Fri Feb 18, 2000, 06:26pm
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This may seem trivial, but there was actually an argument about this question in a pickup game. Player A (Team A) was saving the ball while going out of bounds. He threw the ball to Player B (Team B) who already had both feet out of bounds. Is this a violation?
Some players thought that since Player B was already out of bounds, the ball should belong to Team B (somehow saying Player B was not part of the play). Thanks 
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Fri Feb 18, 2000, 06:34pm
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quote: It depends on what rules you are using in your driveway. Under the rules of NF, NCAA, NBA, WNBA, CBA and FIBA, it is A's ball for the throwin because B1 caused the ball to be OOB. However, if you're using the rules that most coaches think they know, then it's probably "a reach", an "overtheback", an "alloverem", a "gettemoffuvem" or a "hecantdothat". (can you tell I've had a lot of vocal morons, er, I mean coaches, lately?) 
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Mon Feb 21, 2000, 02:43pm
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Speeking of coaches, I had a partner who was doing a girls varsity game and called a 5 second closely guarded count while the player was dribbling. The coach came unglued and said that it was only applicable when it was a held ball. This was high school not college. Some coaches I really wonder about.
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Mon Feb 21, 2000, 03:34pm
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Only when the broadcast networks and ESPN start showing high school games will coaches, parents, and others learn that there are different rules for the different levels of play.
Why don't more coaches realize that knowing the correct rules would benefit themselves and their players?
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