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Old Tue Jun 10, 2008, 02:38pm
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My first thought is an (leaving aside the valid point regarding the apparently missed PC calls) intentional foul. B1 is intentionally tripping A1.

That said, I understand the point about the rule not really having a provision for a foul here. B1 is stationary and not holding an illegal position. My only thought is the "purpose and intent" clause, not allowing a player to gain an unfair advantage not intended by the rules. I can't help but think of this move as an unfair tactic gaining an unfair advantage by tripping a "blind" opponent.

I'm still not sure my initial thought is correct.
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Old Tue Jun 10, 2008, 02:43pm
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And I don't entirely disagree with your line of thinking; it's not a basketball play. However, B1 is not moving, and is certainly not initiating the contact, given the play we are discussing. It's another point entirely if B1 were to slide or roll into the back of A1's legs.
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Old Tue Jun 10, 2008, 02:59pm
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Why am I getting a sense of deja vu here?
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Old Tue Jun 10, 2008, 03:01pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Snaqwells
Why am I getting a sense of deja vu here?
Yeah, me too.
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