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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Wed Mar 27, 2002, 01:22pm
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Wink PLEASE NOTE THE CHANGE- BALL IS NO LONGER A FUMBLE

Player A1 is dribbling down the sideline and B1 knocks the ball away. A1 then steps out of bounds. After returning one foot inbounds, A1 is the first to touch the ball. What is the ruling? References, if available.

This is a wager between myself and a fellow official. I say that A1 is out of bounds until both feet are in bounds then A1 can touch the ball. My colleague says that only one foot needs to return inbounds.

[Edited by hoopcoach98 on Mar 28th, 2002 at 12:48 PM]
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Old Wed Mar 27, 2002, 01:33pm
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Pay up. If it was a fumble, as you say, then A1 can recover the ball after establishing back inbounds. If you have a rulebook that says he must have both feet inbounds to attain that status, you must have a football rulebook.
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Wed Mar 27, 2002, 01:46pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by Mark Padgett
Pay up. If it was a fumble, as you say, then A1 can recover the ball after establishing back inbounds.
Correct. Only foot is required.

Quote:
If you have a rulebook that says he must have both feet inbounds to attain that status, you must have a football rulebook.
Actually, in NF, you wouldn't have to have any feet inbounds. For example, a WR is bumped OOB by the CB. The ball is thrown, the WR leaps from OOB, catches the ball, and lands inbounds. Legal catch. In football, it doesn't matter where you've been, it only matters where you're going.
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Old Wed Mar 27, 2002, 02:43pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by Mark Padgett
Pay up. If it was a fumble, as you say, then A1 can recover the ball after establishing back inbounds. If you have a rulebook that says he must have both feet inbounds to attain that status, you must have a football rulebook.
But if his other foot is OOB when he touches the ball is he and the ball not now OOB? And has he not caused the ball to go OOB? He would have to have both feet inbounds. If not then why do we call OOB when a dribbler places one foot on or over the line and the other is still inbounds??? Just my $0.02.....
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Old Wed Mar 27, 2002, 02:56pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by cmckenna

But if his other foot is OOB when he touches the ball is he and the ball not now OOB? And has he not caused the ball to go OOB? He would have to have both feet inbounds. If not then why do we call OOB when a dribbler places one foot on or over the line and the other is still inbounds??? Just my $0.02.....
cmckenna,
If a foot touches OOB, then yes the player is OOB.
If no foot is OOB, then the player is inbounds.
See Case 4.35.2 Situation (c). Real easy to understand.
mick
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Old Wed Mar 27, 2002, 05:10pm
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Re: PLEASE NOTE THE CHANGE- BALL IS NO LONGER A FUMBLE

Quote:
Originally posted by hoopcoach98
Player A1 is dribbling down the sideline and B1 knocks the ball away. A1 then steps out of bounds. After returning one foot inbounds, A1 is the first to touch the ball. What is the ruling? References, if available.

This is a wager between myself and a fellow official. I say that A1 is out of bounds until both feet are in bounds then A1 can touch the ball. My colleague says that only one foot needs to return inbounds.

I have paid the wager.

[Edited by hoopcoach98 on Mar 27th, 2002 at 01:45 PM]
Even though you changed the play to an interupted dribble, that doesn't change the result.
mick
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Old Wed Mar 27, 2002, 05:10pm
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[QUOTE]Originally posted by mick
Quote:
[i]cmckenna,
If a foot touches OOB, then yes the player is OOB.
If no foot is OOB, then the player is inbounds.
See Case 4.35.2 Situation (c). Real easy to understand.
mick
Mick,

I understand the rule, what I was trying to get at was Mark's reply that says only 1 foot needs to be inbounds to establish inbounds status.... my point is that that can not be true because one foot touching inbounds and one foot touching out of bounds = what???? Ans: Out Of Bounds

Remember, in the original post it says that A1 only returned one foot back in so he must still be OOB.... maybe I'm missing something here but from his post I am assuming that one foot is still touching OOB
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Old Wed Mar 27, 2002, 05:15pm
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[QUOTE]Originally posted by cmckenna
Quote:
Originally posted by mick
Quote:
[i]cmckenna,
If a foot touches OOB, then yes the player is OOB.
If no foot is OOB, then the player is inbounds.
See Case 4.35.2 Situation (c). Real easy to understand.
mick
Mick,

I understand the rule, what I was trying to get at was Mark's reply that says only 1 foot needs to be inbounds to establish inbounds status.... my point is that that can not be true because one foot touching inbounds and one foot touching out of bounds = what???? Ans: Out Of Bounds

Remember, in the original post it says that A1 only returned one foot back in so he must still be OOB.... maybe I'm missing something here but from his post I am assuming that one foot is still touching OOB
cmckenna,
I understand. I am sure everyone knows that with one foot out, the player is out. Thanks for clearing that up.
mick
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  #9 (permalink)  
Old Sun Mar 31, 2002, 04:23am
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easy explanation

Simply put:

As long as the player returns to the court
at approximately the same spot he left,
he can get the ball if he has
"SOMETHING IN & NOTHING OUT".

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Old Sun Mar 31, 2002, 10:19am
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Re: easy explanation

Quote:
Originally posted by bossref
Simply put:

As long as the player returns to the court
at approximately the same spot he left,
he can get the ball if he has
"SOMETHING IN & NOTHING OUT".

Why the restriction on returning at the same spot at which he left?
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Old Sun Mar 31, 2002, 11:13am
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Re: easy explanation

Quote:
Originally posted by bossref
Simply put:

As long as the player returns to the court
at approximately the same spot he left,
he can get the ball if he has
"SOMETHING IN & NOTHING OUT".

The only way i can make any sense out of this is if you mean the player cannot intentionally run down court while OOB or it is a T. Given that the player is going after the ball i would ? myself about calling a T sense the play involves a interupted drible down the sideline. I don't think i want to split hairs on this type of play. Is that what you were thinking?
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  #12 (permalink)  
Old Mon Apr 01, 2002, 04:09pm
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Quote: “This is a wager between myself and a fellow official. I say that A1 is out of bounds until both feet are in bounds then A1 can touch the ball. My colleague says that only one foot needs to return inbounds.”

Hoopcoach98, fess up da cash! A1 does not have to touch both feet inbounds to continue legal play. That is not to say that A1 can touch the ball legally when his other foot is OOB. Those are two distinctly different points. We all know that a player touching any part of his/her body OOB makes that player OOB. Your bet addressed “both feet” returning inbounds. You could have more correctly argued that both feet must leave OOB before A1 can legally touch the ball.

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