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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Mon Feb 07, 2000, 04:35pm
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I did not personally see this call but have had many questions about this play. I teach high school and also officiate. I was doing a game on Friday night so I did not see our school play.

On an inbound after a made basket, Team B is pressing Team A. Team A uses the throw the ball down the baseline to another player play. This is totally legal. Here comes the big question. AFter one pass along the baseline, Team A throws it back along the baseline to another player for a throw in. The referee blew it a violation and gave the ball to team B. Was he right? I am at school and do not have my book with me. I have had several people and players come up to me and ask about the play. They say that they have used the play before. I did not know what to tell them. I also work games with the official and know that he is very up on his rules. In no way am I questioning his call in a negative way. I did not see the play and something else may have happened that triggered the violation. Somebody help me out so I can let these kids know. I will look in my book tonight when I get home.

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Old Mon Feb 07, 2000, 04:49pm
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As long as the ball is thrown inbounds before the 5 second count, this is legal. As far as questioning rules guru's, I saw a guy who writes for referee magazine the other night blow a rule. So, it does happen.
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Old Mon Feb 07, 2000, 05:35pm
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As Tim said, this is not a violation. While waiting for my game to start, I saw a similar play. The official did not call a violation, but I think there should have been one.

After a made basket by team A, B1 went to take the ball OOB on the endline. B2 was standing just inside the line on the court. B2 said "I'll take it" and started to step OOB. After one of B2's feet stepped OOB, B1 flipped the ball toward him. The ball hit B2 on the shoulder and caromed inbounds. The official did not blow his whistle. All of this happened easily within 5 seconds.

However, I thought it was a violation for the following reason:

Even though B1 never released the ball toward the court and B2 was OOB when the pass hit him, which is legal in this case, no one on team B ever released the ball directly toward the court.

Unfortunately, I was not able to discuss this with the official after his game.

Opinions please.
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Old Mon Feb 07, 2000, 06:02pm
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My opinion is that it should not be a violation until one of the two who are OOB touches the ball. Any of the other 8 can touch it and it be legal. Now I don't have a rule to support it so go ahead and disagree.
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Old Tue Feb 08, 2000, 01:08am
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I am assuming that this play took place after a made basket or FT. I am also assuming that the players inbounding the ball had legally established position when they went to throw the ball in.

Sorry for any confusion.
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  #6 (permalink)  
Old Tue Feb 08, 2000, 10:08am
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I wouldn't call a violation either, since the ball really isn't "ready" to be thrown in. If it accidentally touches inbounds during the transition between players, consider it not part of the throw-in and let him retrieve it. Now, once we have an established inbounder, if he fumbles it into the court, he can't touch it.
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  #7 (permalink)  
Old Tue Feb 08, 2000, 10:23am
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quote:
Originally posted by Todd VandenAkker on 02-08-2000 09:08 AM
I wouldn't call a violation either, since the ball really isn't "ready" to be thrown in. If it accidentally touches inbounds during the transition between players, consider it not part of the throw-in and let him retrieve it. Now, once we have an established inbounder, if he fumbles it into the court, he can't touch it.


I agree with the no-call, but for a different reason. The ball was ready for throw-in when B1 was ready to throw it in. Count starts. But I'm not likely to call a violation on B2 for not intentionally throwing the ball in towards the court.

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Let's put another wrinkle in this. What if B1 is ready for throw-in, throws it to B2, and B2 misses it. Ball bounces off into the corner. What do we have, and when do we have it?

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Brian Johnson
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  #8 (permalink)  
Old Tue Feb 08, 2000, 10:40am
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If the ball WAS ready for throw-in and you've started your count, then you can't have no call if it is dropped into the court then picked up again by the thrower, whether done unintentionally or not. If I see that the players want to change who throws it in, and I recognize that before I start my count, I'm going to wait a moment and let them switch. If the ball hits one guy's shoulder and touches the court, the throw-in hasn't begun anyway, so I'm going to wait until he secures the ball, steps out of bounds and starts the throw-in. Then I start my count. I think common sense can prevail here.

As for B1 throwing the ball in and B2 missing it, that's simply a violation and A gets the ball at the original throw-in spot, assuming no one touched the ball before it went OOB.
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  #9 (permalink)  
Old Tue Feb 08, 2000, 10:44am
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BJ, it still goes to what Jim said 5 sec.
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  #10 (permalink)  
Old Tue Feb 08, 2000, 12:11pm
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Remember, the "throw the ball to a teammate who is OOB inbound play" is only legal after a made basket or free throw. On a spot throw in, no teammate of the thrower may be OOB. Therefore, in the original post, they can pass it back and forth as many times as they want provided they inbound the ball prior to the 5 second violation.
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