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-   -   Backcourt violation or not? (https://forum.officiating.com/basketball/39780-backcourt-violation-not.html)

KGB Thu Nov 22, 2007 09:09am

Backcourt violation or not?
 
On a TI from the division line, A1 releases the ball. The ball is deflected by B1 (who is pressuring the TI). The ball gets delected further into the air.

A2, jumps from his frontcourt, catches the ball in the air while over the division line and then lands in the backcourt.

Is this a violation?

Clearly prior to this season, it was not a violation.

However, this year, the TI ends when the ball is legally touched inbounds which seems to occur when B1 deflected the inbounds pass. Therefore, the TI "exception" to the backcourt violation would no longer apply.

All other criteria for a backcourt violation seem to be present.

What am I missing???????????

IREFU2 Thu Nov 22, 2007 09:19am

Since there is no team control on a throw in, then the answer is no. This is a legal play- 9-9-1

bob jenkins Thu Nov 22, 2007 09:23am

Quote:

Originally Posted by KGB
On a TI from the division line, A1 releases the ball. The ball is deflected by B1 (who is pressuring the TI). The ball gets delected further into the air.

A2, jumps from his frontcourt, catches the ball in the air while over the division line and then lands in the backcourt.

Is this a violation?

Clearly prior to this season, it was not a violation.

However, this year, the TI ends when the ball is legally touched inbounds which seems to occur when B1 deflected the inbounds pass. Therefore, the TI "exception" to the backcourt violation would no longer apply.

All other criteria for a backcourt violation seem to be present.

What am I missing???????????

The only think missing is that is was NOT clear prior to this season that this was not a violation.

It is clear that it's a violation now. See interp 6

KGB Thu Nov 22, 2007 09:42am

Quote:

Originally Posted by IREFU2
Since there is no team control on a throw in, then the answer is no. This is a legal play- 9-9-1

The throw in is over when B1 deflected the ball.

KGB Thu Nov 22, 2007 09:43am

Quote:

Originally Posted by bob jenkins
The only think missing is that is was NOT clear prior to this season that this was not a violation.

It is clear that it's a violation now. See interp 6

Bob,

Clarify "See interp 6".

I work HS only.

bob jenkins Thu Nov 22, 2007 09:46am

Quote:

Originally Posted by KGB
Bob,

Clarify "See interp 6".

I work HS only.

NFHS 2007-2008 Basetball Rules Interpretations, Situation 6.

You can get them on the NFHS website.

IREFU2 Thu Nov 22, 2007 09:58am

Quote:

Originally Posted by KGB
The throw in is over when B1 deflected the ball.

Hey go to your case book and look at page 72 (9.9.1 Situation D) I was a little hasty in my answer. They need to word this a little bit better and determine what a legal touch is. I guess a deflection is a legal touch....

rainmaker Thu Nov 22, 2007 11:51am

Quote:

Originally Posted by IREFU2
Hey go to your case book and look at page 72 (9.9.1 Situation D) I was a little hasty in my answer. They need to word this a little bit better and determine what a legal touch is. I guess a deflection is a legal touch....

illegal touch = kick

jdw3018 Thu Nov 22, 2007 11:55am

Quote:

Originally Posted by rainmaker
illegal touch = kick

Or batting with a fist?

bannind Thu Nov 22, 2007 01:17pm

It is not a violation as described in the first post. Yes a deflection or tap ends the throwin, but it does not establish front/backcourt possession.

I believe the situation that will cause the most problems, because of the clarification of when a throwin ends, is with momentum causing a player who catches a ball with one foot in the front court and momentum carries them into the back court. While legal if during a throwin, if the ball has been deflected (in a manner that is considered a legal touch) and A1 gains control of the ball with one foot in the front court and momentum takes them into the back court - at that point there is a violation. That is because the consideration to allow a players momentum to legally take them into the back court only exists during a throwin. If the ball has been legally touched the throwin is over and that consideration no longer exists.

But in reference to the original posters question - there would be no violation.

but that is just my reading on the rules.

jdw3018 Thu Nov 22, 2007 01:21pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by bannind
But in reference to the original posters question - there would be no violation.

When the player catches the ball while airborne, he establishes player control, which also establishes team control. Also, since the player left the frontcourt, he gives the ball frontcourt status when he establishes player control. Then he lands in the backcourt. This is a violation.

The only time this is not a violation is during a throw-in, as it is an allowed exception to the rule. Since B tipped the ball, ending the throw-in, the exception no longer applies.

Vinski Thu Nov 22, 2007 01:24pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by jdw3018
When the player catches the ball while airborne, he establishes player control, which also establishes team control. Also, since the player left the frontcourt, he gives the ball frontcourt status when he establishes player control. Then he lands in the backcourt. This is a violation.

The only time this is not a violation is during a throw-in, as it is an allowed exception to the rule. Since B tipped the ball, ending the throw-in, the exception no longer applies.


Very well put, jdw.

JugglingReferee Thu Nov 22, 2007 01:45pm

"You are where you were until you get where you're going" applies to A2 in this case. Along with B's touch ending the TI: violation.

Jurassic Referee Thu Nov 22, 2007 02:24pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by bannind
It is not a violation as described in the first post. Yes a deflection or tap ends the throwin, but it does not establish front/backcourt possession.

I believe the situation that will cause the most problems, because of the clarification of when a throwin ends, is with momentum causing a player who catches a ball with one foot in the front court and momentum carries them into the back court. While legal if during a throwin, if the ball has been deflected (in a manner that is considered a legal touch) and A1 gains control of the ball with one foot in the front court and momentum takes them into the back court - at that point there is a violation. That is because the consideration to allow a players momentum to legally take them into the back court only exists during a throwin. If the ball has been legally touched the throwin is over and that consideration no longer exists.

But in reference to the original posters question - there would be no violation.

but that is just my reading on the rules.

Don't take this the wrong way but.....do you even bother to read what everybody else is posting?

Bob Jenkins has already said above that the the NFHS posted the correct ruling on their web site. The FED ruling is that it <b>IS</b> a violation. How can you then say that it's </b>your</b> reading of the rules when you obviously <b>didn't</b> bother to read the rules.:confused:

http:..http://www.nfhs.org/web/2007/10/2007...s_interpr.aspx
See Situation #6. Note that it's the exact play described in the original post of this thread.

Also note that is probably the third or fourth thread about the exact same play. The ruling ain't gonna change, folks.

bannind Thu Nov 22, 2007 02:33pm

I do stand corrected - I was not getting any response from the NFHS.org website and I had left the fed books at the office, thus I could not verify for myself.

I don't take it the wrong way - and have a great Thanksgiving Jurassic (and everyone else).


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