Originally Posted by FrankHtown

But, the throw-in ends when the ball is released by the thrower.

Originally Posted by jdw3018

Actually, I differ with this statement, as in the OP A2 stepped OOB prior to catching the ball. As I read it, this is a direct violation of 9-2-11, as A2 is OOB prior to the throw-in ending.

Originally Posted by CoachP

9-2-11??

May want to re-read that then.....A2 is not an opponent(s)

Originally Posted by jdw3018

4-42-5: The throw-in ends when the passed ball touches, or is legally touched by, another player who is either inbounds or out of bounds, except as in 7-5-7.

The throw-in count ends when the ball is released, but the throw-in is not over until the ball is touched, therefore I don't see how 9-2-11 doesn't apply.

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

Exactly. Also; restrictions on the thrower end with the release; except for the fact that the thrower cannot be first to touch the ball after she releases the pass onto the court.

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

Team A is awarded a throw-in on a sideline of the court at the FT line extended in the backcourt. A1 steps OOB and the official administers the ball. A1 passes the ball on the OOB side of the boundary plane to the other end of the court and A2 runs over and catches the ball while it is still on the OOB side of the boundary plane, but has placed one foot OOB prior to catching the ball, so that when he makes contact with the ball he has one foot inbounds and one foot OOB at the 28 foot line in the frontcourt.

Is this a throw-in violation per 9-2-3 or an OOB violation per 9-3-2? It seems that both rules would apply equally to the situation. Does one take precedence over the other? More importantly where is the throw-in for Team B following the violation? Is it from the FT line extended in Team B's frontcourt or from the 28 foot line in their backcourt?

Originally Posted by rainmaker

Good grief, who cares?? It's a violation, turn the ball over and let's go.

Originally Posted by RushmoreRef

I agree with the throw-in violations but came about it in a different manner...I guess you'll tell me if this wasn't logical.

I asked myself if the clock would have ever started...If the answer is no then you have to go back to original inbound spot because you never had a legal throw-in. If the answer is yes then you felt that the throw in was "legal" and that the ball went OOB where A2 recieved it. My logic, however warped you think it may seem gave me only one conclusion, throw-in violation.

I know that might seem like a different way to conclude the ruling, but I think it makes sense, doesn't it?

Originally Posted by rainmaker

Good grief, who cares?? It's a violation, turn the ball over and let's go.

Originally Posted by jdw3018

Not to be argumentative, but it could matter a lot when determining where to give B their throw-in...

Originally Posted by jdw3018

I'm gonna ask a silly question - are we reading the same 9-2-11? Because in my 07-08 Rule Book, it says:

No teammate of the thrower shall be out of bounds after a designated-spot throw-in begins.

And, maybe you're confusing with 9-2-10 which deals with an opponent of the thrower being beyond the boundary-line plane...

Originally Posted by rainmaker

That's a point I suppose. Good point. Hmmm... Okay, I think that it's a throw-in violation on the basis that when A2 stepped oob, before retrieving the ball, the ball became dead. Or when A2 reached through the plane before touching the ball. Or when the ball never crossed inbounds before it was touched by A2. Yup, that's my story and I"m sticking to it. Throw-in violation, ball to Bl at the point where it was thrown.

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

Agreed. And, even though in the OP A2 was on the same OOB line as the thrower, that is not required for this violation. The prohibition is against being OOB anywhere during a throwin.

So, change the situation to an endline throwin after a goal. A2 goes streaking down the court for a potential fast break but the pass is too long. Knowing B will get the ball under their own basket, A2 catches up to the ball before it goes OOB, but is himself OOB prior to touching the ball.

We're still going back to the spot where A1 released the pass; unless it was deflected on the way. :)

Originally Posted by Camron Rust

OK, let's modify the play a little bit to isolate the real question that is being asked in this thread:

A1 steps OOB for a throw-in following a made goal by B. A1 passes the ball on the OOB side of the boundary plane to the corner of the court where A2 catches the ball while it is still on the OOB side of the boundary plane. A2 also has one foot inbounds and one foot touching the OOB line (but on the side line).

This play removes the issue of the player being OOB during the throwin and makes it a question solely about whether catching the ball before it crosses the line takes precedence over catching the ball while the player has OOB status.
A2's OOB location could just as well be the endline but then that would introduce the possibility of A1 trying to pass to A2 for a legal throwin but A2 didn't get all the way OOB....so I wanted to eliminate that from the equation: