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Wed Jan 16, 2002, 11:21pm
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Just a quick question to reassure myself. Friend of mine asked me about this situation. Technical foul called after the ball becomes dead to end the half. I told him that the free throws are shot to begin the 3rd quarter and that the T is recorded as the first team foul of the 3rd quarter. He thought that since they had not left the gym for halftime, the foul should be recorded as part of the 1st half, although he said he shot the FTs to start the 2nd half.
In any case, shoot the FTs to start the half and mard the T as the first team foul of the 2nd half. Right? Chuck 
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Wed Jan 16, 2002, 11:30pm
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Yes. The 1st half ending is not the same as the ending of the game (when officials leave). As soon as you have :00 and a proper horn, the half is over, T's are part of the 3rd.
NF 5-6-4.
__________________
"To win the game is great. To play the game is greater. But to love the game is the greatest of all."
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Wed Jan 16, 2002, 11:55pm
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Quote:
 If B1 slapped the backboard, the T would be part of the 1st half, even though the clock was at 0:00 and the horn had sounded. In the original play, the T would be part of the 3rd because Chuck said the ball was dead.
__________________
"...as cool as the other side of the pillow." - Stuart Scott "You should never be proud of doing the right thing." - Dean Smith
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Thu Jan 17, 2002, 09:44am
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[QUOTE]Originally posted by BktBallRef
Quote:
Chuck
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Thu Jan 17, 2002, 09:54am
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Thank you, Tony, for pointing out that obvious exception that I somehow forgot to post . . .
To answer the latest question, yes, this is the first team foul of the 2nd half.
__________________
"To win the game is great. To play the game is greater. But to love the game is the greatest of all."
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