Just a quick question to reassure myself. Friend of mine asked me about this situation. Technical foul called after the ball becomes dead to end the half. I told him that the free throws are shot to begin the 3rd quarter and that the T is recorded as the first team foul of the 3rd quarter. He thought that since they had not left the gym for halftime, the foul should be recorded as part of the 1st half, although he said he shot the FTs to start the 2nd half.

In any case, shoot the FTs to start the half and mard the T as the first team foul of the 2nd half. Right?

Chuck

Yes. The 1st half ending is not the same as the ending of the game (when officials leave). As soon as you have :00 and a proper horn, the half is over, T's are part of the 3rd.

NF 5-6-4.

Nope, not if a shot is released before the horn and is still in the air! :)

If B1 slapped the backboard, the T would be part of the 1st half, even though the clock was at 0:00 and the horn had sounded.

In the original play, the T would be part of the 3rd because Chuck said the ball was dead.

[QUOTE]Originally posted by BktBallRef

Quote:

In the original play, the T would be part of the 3rd because Chuck said the ball was dead.

Right, but just to be doubly sure, the T is recorded as the first team foul of the 3rd quarter?

Chuck

Thank you, Tony, for pointing out that obvious exception that I somehow forgot to post . . .

To answer the latest question, yes, this is the first team foul of the 2nd half.