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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Tue Jul 17, 2007, 10:35am
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Exclamation What I hope is the last freaking AP throw-in quiz

A1 to inbound on an AP throw-in. During the throw-in, the ball is simultaneously kicked by A2 and B1. Does team A retain the arrow for the subsequent throw-in?
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Old Tue Jul 17, 2007, 10:41am
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Wow that would be interesting to see. I would have a double violation (if there is such a thing) which again would be AP throw in (in my mindk ie: held ball). The first AP didnt complete, therefore, A1 to inbound on same AP throw-in. Thats my final answer.
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Old Tue Jul 17, 2007, 10:50am
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aaahhh, I just caught up on your series of AP questions... very good.
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Old Tue Jul 17, 2007, 11:00am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Mark Padgett
A1 to inbound on an AP throw-in. During the throw-in, the ball is simultaneously kicked by A2 and B1. Does team A retain the arrow for the subsequent throw-in?
Oh yeah?

How about this:

On an AP throw-in, A1 throws the ball over the basket.

While the ball is in the cylinder, A1 and B1 simultaneously commit BI.

Or, B1 commits BI.

Or, B1 commits BI at the same time as A1 kicks the ball.

Ruling..?
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Old Tue Jul 17, 2007, 11:04am
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Oh my, so this is what off season drives you to.... Mark did you find those meds?
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  #6 (permalink)  
Old Tue Jul 17, 2007, 11:43am
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On a double violation you go to the AP arrow, which by now is spinning like a weather vane in a tornado
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Old Tue Jul 17, 2007, 12:20pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins
Or, B1 commits BI at the same time as A1 kicks the ball.
A1 kicks the ball at the same time that B1 commits Basket interference!?!

Is A1 Pele?
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Old Tue Jul 17, 2007, 03:02pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by dkmz17
A1 kicks the ball at the same time that B1 commits Basket interference!?!

Is A1 Pele?
If A1 were Pele, that would change the answer, because we need to protect the famous players.

Maybe A1 has a prosthesis that became detached. OF course, in this instance, A1 couldn't complain about the call because s/he doesn't have a leg to stand on. (Sorry, I had to say that so Mark wouldn't)
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Old Tue Jul 17, 2007, 03:08pm
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Exclamation

Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins
Maybe A1 has a prosthesis that became detached. OF course, in this instance, A1 couldn't complain about the call because s/he doesn't have a leg to stand on. (Sorry, I had to say that so Mark wouldn't)
I can see it coming now - an endless thread about lack of a pivot foot following a jump hop.
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Old Tue Jul 17, 2007, 05:27pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Mark Padgett
I can see it coming now - an endless thread about lack of a pivot foot following a jump hop.
Jump hops are legal. If you pick up your pivot foot, you can now legally jump hop on the other foot from one end of the court to the other.

It's true, it's true.....
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Old Tue Jul 17, 2007, 05:33pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins
If A1 were Pele, that would change the answer, because we need to protect the famous players.

Maybe A1 has a prosthesis that became detached. OF course, in this instance, A1 couldn't complain about the call because s/he doesn't have a leg to stand on. (Sorry, I had to say that so Mark wouldn't)
Well, no, s/he would have A leg to stand on. But not much else.
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Old Tue Jul 17, 2007, 05:37pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Dan_ref
Well, no, s/he would have A leg to stand on. But not much else.
Disagree.

Ever heard of Ron Jeremy?
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Old Wed Jul 18, 2007, 02:42pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins
Maybe A1 has a prosthesis that became detached.
3 bases from the time of pitch?
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Old Tue Jul 17, 2007, 12:45pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins
Or, B1 commits BI at the same time as A1 kicks the ball.
I've got a false double violation with agravating circumstances, making it a second degree violation.
B1 commits BI, violation.
A1 kicks the ball at the same time, meaning she is also goal tending. Normally, with the double violation, we'd go POI with just some simple fines for both. However, with the agravating circumstances, this becomes a second degree violation on A1 while only a third degree violation on B1.

I'm giving the ball to A1.
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Old Tue Jul 17, 2007, 12:58pm
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Question

Quote:
Originally Posted by Snaqwells
I've got a false double violation with agravating circumstances, making it a second degree violation.
B1 commits BI, violation.
A1 kicks the ball at the same time, meaning she is also goal tending. Normally, with the double violation, we'd go POI with just some simple fines for both. However, with the agravating circumstances, this becomes a second degree violation on A1 while only a third degree violation on B1.

I'm giving the ball to A1.
Isn't the correct call a simultaneous illegal chop block and balk? In that case, you give the ball to the player whose number is a perfect square but not divisible by pi.

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