A question from a recreational player hoping to learn more about the (FIBA) rules :
If an offensive player has a firm grasp of the ball with both hands and a defensive player strikes the ball forcing the offensive player to loose control of the ball, that I would say is a fair play. However is it a foul if at the same time as the defensive player strikes the ball they also strike the offensive players hand ? To put it another way, is the hand considered part of the ball or not ?
I have heard it argued either way; that is, different people have said that it is and is not a foul. I've read the FIBA rules and can't seem to find a reference either way to this situation.
Personally I would argue that it is a foul because physical contact was involved and a player was disadvantaged.
A slight twist on this, what if the contact was caused by follow through. For example, a clean 'slap of the ball was amde that caused loss of control, but on the follow through of the slap contact was made. In this case the contact caused no advantage (other than a red mark on the hand !) - no call ?
Finally, is there any good sites that have interpretations of the rules ?
Thanks,
Gary
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