Throw in (after a basket) hits official...

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by rainmaker

JR, I don't follow your reasoning here if the ref has both feet oob. Why would it be illegal for the ball to touch the ref? Then when the ball goes inbounds...

I see, so it's illegal for the ball to go inbounds after it bounces oob?

Right. The ball touching the official is the same as the ball touching the floor (rule 2- Ball Location). So, we have a passed ball, touching out of bounds, then going inbounds. That's a ball that's not passd directly into the court. Violation.

[MJT]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

Right. The ball touching the official is the same as the ball touching the floor (rule 2- Ball Location). So, we have a passed ball, touching out of bounds, then going inbounds. That's a ball that's not passd directly into the court. Violation.

So, would it be considered OOB's as I stated, or a violation? Does it really matter, as A will get the ball either way?

[Adam]

Originally Posted by MJT

So, would it be considered OOB's as I stated, or a violation? Does it really matter, as A will get the ball either way?

Technically, it's a throwin violation. It's the same call you'd make if the thrower bounced threw a bounce pass that bounced OOB before being caught in bounds by a teammate.

[Adam]

Had a dual violation last night. A1 getting trapped right by his bench in the 2nd half. He's used his dribble and is trying to get an angle to pass over B1 and B2. He lifts his pivot foot and I can tell it's coming down. Sure enough, he puts it down ... out of bounds. Can't remember what I called, but I gave the ball to B.

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by MJT

So, would it be considered OOB's as I stated, or a violation? Does it really matter, as A will get the ball either way?

Yes, the ball is OOB when it hits the official, as you stated. It does not become a a violation however until the ball lands in-bounds though.