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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Fri Jan 26, 2007, 10:42pm
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Is it possible?

Is it possible to have time expired (0.0 seconds showing on the clock) and be shooting FTs? The horn did sound.

Seen a play tonight where a kid was fouled and they shot FTs.

Another ref in the gym was explaining to some people that there should be at least 0.1 on the clock because if there was a foul - the foul had to occur prior to the horn sounding and therfore time should be remaining.

I calmly said that this was possible. That if the try had left the shooter's hand and then the foul occured (which is what I saw, the shooter got hacked after the ball was gone) and the shooter was still an airborne shooter which he was that time could have expired.

This is apparently what the officials saw or for whatever reason they allowed the FTs with the lane cleared and that was the end of the quarter.

Correct? or is the other ref correct in saying time has to be put back on the clock?
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Old Fri Jan 26, 2007, 10:53pm
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Continuous Motion principles applies to an airborne shooter who has not yet returned to the floor. So here's a possiblity: The ball left the shooter's hands, time expired while the shot was in flight, the shooter was fouled on the return to the floor.

So, it is possible to have FTs with no time left on the clock, however, I can't speak as to this particular case, because I wasn't the official and didn't see the play.

Last edited by NewNCref; Fri Jan 26, 2007 at 10:55pm.
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Old Fri Jan 26, 2007, 11:02pm
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I understand you did not see the play. Let's forget about the play I described.

True or False.

You can have a foul called and then have the time on the clock be expired?
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Old Fri Jan 26, 2007, 11:05pm
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In that order, no, the statement is false. You cannot have a foul called, and then have time run off the clock. The clock stops on the whistle, and becomes dead as soon as the try ends.

However, in the event that a foul was called, and the timer wasn't able to stop the clock in time, and the officials had no definite knowledge of the time the foul occurred, then I could see going with the FTs, and the period then ending.

Last edited by NewNCref; Fri Jan 26, 2007 at 11:07pm.
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Old Fri Jan 26, 2007, 11:16pm
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That was worded poorly and not what I was trying to say.

True or False:

A foul may be called on B1 after A1 has released the try, but yet to return to the floor and the horn had sounded and time expired.
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Old Fri Jan 26, 2007, 11:21pm
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  #7 (permalink)  
Old Fri Jan 26, 2007, 11:21pm
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That is true (at least it is to the best of my knowledge, perhaps someone else can either support me or let me know if I'm wrong)
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Old Fri Jan 26, 2007, 11:27pm
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Where is NevadaRef when you need him????
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Old Fri Jan 26, 2007, 11:36pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Ringo
Where is NevadaRef when you need him????
Probably off reffing somewhere, while East Coasters such as myself are winding down for the night. Anyways, deecee, from my experience reading the boards, is quite knowledgable.
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Old Fri Jan 26, 2007, 11:52pm
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yes, you can shoot free throws after time expires. A foul can occurr with the clock so near expiration that the official does not see time on the clock before the horn sounds. Of course there are t-foul sitches also that can result in free throws with no time on the clock or 8:00 or 16:00 or 20:00 (whatever the quarter or half begins with)
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Old Sat Jan 27, 2007, 12:04am
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To answer your question - yes - you can have the FT's with 0:0 on the clock and that's part of 4th quarter. Actually, they will probably get even more FT's because the other coach will probably go APE$HIT and you'll have to whack him - would those be in the 4th qtr or OT????

Typically you would begin the OT with any T that's whistled after the buzzer - but would these be part of the 4th since the quarter really won't end until the FT's are over? (Did I just answer my own question?)
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Old Sat Jan 27, 2007, 12:17am
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What I am looking for here is if the following scenario is true ...

A1 trys for a goal ... once the ball is gone, the time expires, the horn sounds and just after that B1 hacks A1 (A1 was still an airborne shooter) resulting in the official to blow the whistle to call a foul.

This results in A1 going to the FT line to attempt the FTs with 0.0 on the clock.

Sound legal and proper under the rules?
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Old Sat Jan 27, 2007, 12:19am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Ringo
What I am looking for here is if the following scenario is true ...

A1 trys for a goal ... once the ball is gone, the time expires, the horn sounds and just after that B1 hacks A1 (A1 was still an airborne shooter) resulting in the official to blow the whistle to call a foul.

This results in A1 going to the FT line to attempt the FTs with 0.0 on the clock.

Sound legal and proper under the rules?
Unless I'm missing something in your post - yes that is correct.
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Old Sat Jan 27, 2007, 01:14am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Ringo
Where is NevadaRef when you need him????
You have the answer. It can happen. What more do you need?

Drive, jump, shot, time expires, foul, shooter returns to the floor.
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Old Sat Jan 27, 2007, 02:00am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Ringo
What I am looking for here is if the following scenario is true ...

A1 trys for a goal ... once the ball is gone, the time expires, the horn sounds and just after that B1 hacks A1 (A1 was still an airborne shooter) resulting in the official to blow the whistle to call a foul.

This results in A1 going to the FT line to attempt the FTs with 0.0 on the clock.

Sound legal and proper under the rules?
As others have said, YES. I actually had it happen in my game tonight. Final seconds of 2nd quarter, player launched a 3 pt attempt with 0.3 on the clock. While player is still airborne defender collides with her and horn sounds simultaneously, my whistle was a split second later. Try was unsuccessful, so fouled player got 3 FT attempts with the lane cleared....then we proceeded with half time break.
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