NCAA Pretest

[Lotto]

Originally Posted by rockyroad

It should in our minds...but it doesn't. The correct answer is B.

Why?

If you look at 7-21 AR 161, you'll see that an inadvertent whistle is handled differently depending on whether whether it occurs before or after the ball is released on a try. If it occurs before the ball is released, then team A still has possession and we give the ball back to A. If it occurs after the release, the shot "counts" and we ignore the whistle if the shot goes in, and go to the AP if it misses.

Based on this, it would seem that the FT attempt would not be canceled by the inadvertent whistle and we'd enforce the violation by B1 by giving the ball back to A1 for the first FT of a one-and-one, but with no delayed violation against B1.

[Kevzebra]

Originally Posted by Lotto

Why?

If you look at 7-21 AR 161, you'll see that an inadvertent whistle is handled differently depending on whether whether it occurs before or after the ball is released on a try. If it occurs before the ball is released, then team A still has possession and we give the ball back to A. If it occurs after the release, the shot "counts" and we ignore the whistle if the shot goes in, and go to the AP if it misses.

Based on this, it would seem that the FT attempt would not be canceled by the inadvertent whistle and we'd enforce the violation by B1 by giving the ball back to A1 for the first FT of a one-and-one, but with no delayed violation against B1.

But the action of the play itself dictates that B is the correct answer. Sometimes you have to invoke the "spirit of the rule" clause in your thinking.

[Lotto]

Originally Posted by Kevzebra

But the action of the play itself dictates that B is the correct answer. Sometimes you have to invoke the "spirit of the rule" clause in your thinking.

It's exactly the spirit of the rule that led me to question this. Had there been no inadvertent whistle, A1 would be given the first shot of a one-and-one as the result of B2's violation. Since the whistle occurred after the ball was released (and therefore could not have had any affect on A1's attempt), the result of that attempt should be allowed to stand on its merits.

Let's take the violation out of the picture and propose another situation. A1 is awarded one FT. A1 releases the ball on the FT attempt. The ball hits the rim and bounces straight up. An official blows his/her whistle at that point. Would you cancel the FT and give A1 another FT if the ball goes in? What if the ball doesn't go in?

[rockyroad]

Originally Posted by Lotto

Why?

.

Because I said so...just kidding. Actually, because I already took the test, put B as my answer, and got it right.

And Scott, regardless of what Z says, I didn't block you...the boss said something about having too many good-looking officials on the court distracting all those women coaches - getting too many complaints about that, I guess...

Shutup Jr, just shutup!!