Quote:
Originally posted by JugglingReferee
In my sitch, the official had signalled that is was B's ball. B had not yet received the ball OOB, but everyone had been informed what was going to happen.
Then we realized the error. Both of us thought that until B actually had the ball (ie. possession), it has not qualified as a COP.
Does B having the ball OOB qualify as a COP?
|
Yes, imo. See 2.10.1A (last year's reference). If "getting the ball" because of the posession arrow qualifies as COP, then "getting the ball" becuase of an OOB violation (or other) should also qualify.
Fri Feb 03, 2006, 05:53pm
Threaded Mode
