![]() |
|
|||
![]()
Had a situation today. Boys 16U, 4th-Q. Team A is fouled by B. Nonshooting foul. The table signals that team A is in the bonus (Mrs. Johnny's Mom is keeping the book), so we procede to the line and shoot 1 and 1 (made the first, missed the second). The next dead ball the table tells us that team A was, in fact, not in the bonus.
How is this handled? |
|
|||
Quote:
__________________
"...as cool as the other side of the pillow." - Stuart Scott "You should never be proud of doing the right thing." - Dean Smith |
|
|||
[QUOTE]Originally posted by BktBallRef
Quote:
![]() Ok, I know that by rule we cancel the FT and award the ball to A. However, if the first dead ball is a result of B being fouled in the act of shooting. Does B attempt the throws with an empty lane and then we give the ball back to A? Or do we cancel all the action to this point and give the ball back to A? |
|
|||
[QUOTE]Originally posted by Mike Burns
Quote:
I hate these things! ![]()
__________________
"...as cool as the other side of the pillow." - Stuart Scott "You should never be proud of doing the right thing." - Dean Smith |
|
|||
I can see that the foul that occurred would still be in the book. But since the free throws did not yet occur, why do you shoot them? Failing to shoot the free throws does not nullify any activity which has occurred or any points scored.
|
|
|||
![]()
I will take a shot at this! I know that I will be corrected if I'm wrong!(Don't have my books).
Player B1 is fouled in the act of shooting, I think this would be like continous motion! Yes the foul occured while he/she was shooting, he/she is entitled to complete the necessary course of action, prior to correcting the error! My logic(not backed up by any casebook) AK ref SE |
|
|||
Quote:
__________________
"...as cool as the other side of the pillow." - Stuart Scott "You should never be proud of doing the right thing." - Dean Smith |
|
|||
I guess my point is that you are treating fouls differently than other violations in this correctable error scenario. In most cases, the first dead ball after the error occurs will be the result of a violation. Say A shot the free throws in error, B then gets ball and misses a shot, A brings ball up court and travels. At this point the error is noted and the correction made. Free throws erased and ball to A. We do not give the ball to B just because a traveling violation occurred. So it is not clear to me why we shoot free throws then give ball to A when a foul occurs, rather than just giving ball to A as we would with any other violation.
|
|
|||
Hawks Coach -
I see your point, but my feeling is that a foul IS DIFFERENT from any other violation, that's why the rules committee distinguishes between the two. As BktBallRef stated, "To not shoot the FTs would be to ignore the foul. The foul and the shots that are to follow must not be ignored." To not shoot the FTs in the case would be giving Team A a huge advantage. What if player B1 had not been fouled in the act of shooting and his basket scored. That would have created a deadball situation, the table could have notified the officials, and the ball could be given back to Team A at the spot of the foul. That couldn't happen in this thread's scenario, because player B1 was FOULED IN THE ACT OF SHOOTING (read: he was put at a disadvantage by Team A) and his shot didn't go in. Not allowing Team B to shoot there freethrows would not only be the incorrect thing to do, according to the book, but it would also be unjust (i know the two don't always agree). In closing, let me say this, THANK YOU for caring about the spirit and intent of the rules as much as you do. If more coaches cared as much as you seem to, the games would be much easier to officiate. Jake |
|
|||
Coach-
I understand your reasoning behind this, but I have to agree with BktBallRef. Rule 2-10-6 states: If an error is corrected, play shall be resumed from the point at which it was interrupted to rectify the error... Thus, you would go back and nullify the free throws, and then resume play by awarding the free throws for the last foul. The ball would not go back to team A for an inbound based on the correction of the error. You would play the free throws as normal. I'm not sure if this makes sense?
__________________
Coach, Don't Shoot The Messenger! |
|
|||
Dave
This is not what bktballref has suggested. He says shoot the free throws, not as normal but with no one on lane, then give ball to A. I do recognize that fouls are different and am not arguing the call, just looking to see if there are rules or cases to back this call. I have seen justifications, but no facts. so my inquiry remains unanswered, other than to point out that fouls are different than other violations or dead ball situations. |
|
|||
COACH; I think what Dave was trying to say with this whole situation is this: If B1 is fouled in the act of shooting after the error was made. Then you go back and take away the free throw basket by A1 that wasn't entitled. Then you go back to where the play left off with the foul shots by B1, with players on the lane spots. Play will be continued from that time on. The rule states that you continue where the play left off after the correctable error is taken care of.
__________________
It's NOTHING until YOU call it!! |
![]() |
Bookmarks |
|
|