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Old Fri Jul 22, 2005, 08:47am
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Join Date: Feb 2005
Location: Columbia, MD
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Is it an over and back violation if A1 has the ball, one foot in FC, one foot in BC, picks up BC foot to pivot (assume no travel), and places that foot in the BC?

I thought I read somewhere that it was, but I'm not sure sicne I can't find where I thought I read it or heard it, and I can't match a casebook play to it either.
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