Foul or no-call?

[blindzebra]

Originally posted by bob jenkins

Why did we not have equally favorable positions? I hardly think A1's position was favorable for almost anything.

Agreed -- but it's the held ball that makes those things "kind of hard" -- at least in the version of the play that Rich and I are calling a held ball.

A player diving does not have a position.

I read that as two players with an equal chance of playing.

In this case you have a player on the floor with limited options and a player, without a position on the floor, taking away what options are there.

Is A1 entitled to their spot on the floor?

Is the ball loose?

Did the dive hinder A1?

Would that level of contact normally displace a standing player?

Do we want to encourage OVERLY-aggressive play, that could seriously injure a player?

In my game if the tie up did not cause the contact, in this case the diving on, I'm calling a foul. I can't seperate the act from the result and a split second of holding the ball, before B1 lands on A1, does not meet the requirements for a held ball. 4-25-1 Opponents have their hands so FIRMLY on the ball that control cannot be obtained without undue roughness.