PC or not??

[ref18]

Fed's the only rule I'm familliar with and the way your post was worded it was a bit open ended, but I was just making sure I didn't screw up the NCAA mens ruling.

[canuckrefguy]

Yeah, I never thought of that....only a couple of provinces up here use the Fed Rules - everyone else, I believe, is using modified NCAA Mens Rules now. Unless Quebec is still using FIBA?

Uh oh, I said the F-word....the door's open for Padgett now.

[ref18]

I think Quebec has moved to CIS mens rules, but don't quote me, I know for sure that Ontario still uses Fed rules. I don't think FIBA is used anywhere in Canada anymore, except for the FIBA carded officials.

[Mark Dexter]

Originally posted by rainmaker
If the player who fouls has player control, there are no shots, ever. If the player who fouls does not have the ball, there are shots if the opponent is in the bonus regardless of offense or defense.

Juulie - just because I know you're a stickler for grammar and semantics:

If the foul is a player control foul, then there are no shots awarded. If the foul, by a player who has control of the ball, is flagrant, intentional, or technical, then it is not a PC foul, and shots are awarded.

[BktBallRef]

Originally posted by Back In The Saddle

B1 cannot take away A1's landing spot after he's airborne, whether he has the ball or not. That would be a block whether B1 had previously obtained LGP or not.

Assuming that B1 did not move into airborne A1's landing spot, LGP or not, B1 is entitled to his spot on the floor. If A1 initiates the contact by crashing into B1, any foul is going to be on A1.

In short, I don't see how LGP affects this play either way.

Huh?

LGP is most definitely affects the play.

If B1 has obtained LGP before A1 leaves the floor, the foul is on A1.

If he gets to the spot after A1 leaves the floor, then he does not have LGP and it's a block.

[Back In The Saddle]

Originally posted by BktBallRef

Huh?

LGP is most definitely affects the play.

If B1 has obtained LGP before A1 leaves the floor, the foul is on A1.

If he gets to the spot after A1 leaves the floor, then he does not have LGP and it's a block.

Okay, assuming A1 runs over B1 while A1 is airborne.

• If B1 DID have LGP and was already on the spot before A1 went airborne, foul on A1.
• If B1 DID NOT have LGP, but was already on that spot before A1 went airborne, foul on A1.
• If B1 DID have LGP, but moved to the spot after A1 went airborne, foul on B1.
• If B1 DID NOT have LGP, and moved to the spot after A1 went airborne, foul on B1.

I don't see how LGP is particularly relevant to this call. The determining factor really is: Was B1 on that spot before A1 went airborne or not?

[rainmaker]

Originally posted by Mark Dexter

Juulie - just because I know you're a stickler for grammar and semantics:

If the foul is a player control foul, then there are no shots awarded. If the foul, by a player who has control of the ball, is flagrant, intentional, or technical, then it is not a PC foul, and shots are awarded.

Yea, but you only got half of what I was trying to say. The second half of my post talks about the player who fouls, but DOES NOT have the ball. Now, try again.

[nine01c]

Mark: I know what you are saying. A player can have control of the ball and commit a flagrant or intentional foul. Thus it is no longer considered a player control foul (even though he does have control of the ball), so there will be shots. So technically, a player CAN have control of the ball and there will be foul shots (although not called a PC foul).

The statement that there are NEVER shots awarded on a PC foul is correct. The statement that there are NEVER shots awarded when a player who controls the ball fouls, is incorrect.

[BktBallRef]

Originally posted by Back In The Saddle

Okay, assuming A1 runs over B1 while A1 is airborne.

• If B1 DID have LGP and was already on the spot before A1 went airborne, foul on A1.
• If B1 DID NOT have LGP, but was already on that spot before A1 went airborne, foul on A1.
• If B1 DID have LGP, but moved to the spot after A1 went airborne, foul on B1.
• If B1 DID NOT have LGP, and moved to the spot after A1 went airborne, foul on B1.

I don't see how LGP is particularly relevant to this call. The determining factor really is: Was B1 on that spot before A1 went airborne or not?

TO some extent, we're talking semantics. But LGP does have an affect on this play. The only situation that you listed would be where B1 is on the spot prior to A1 leaving the floor but was not facing A1. This could be a foul on A1. The other three scenarios are automatically a foul or not a foul, based on whether LGP existed or not.

Bottom line, if B! did not obtain LGP on the spot prior to A1 leaving the floor, it's a PC. THat is true no matter what happened prior to the contact.

[Jay R]

Originally posted by ref18
I think Quebec has moved to CIS mens rules, but don't quote me, I know for sure that Ontario still uses Fed rules. I don't think FIBA is used anywhere in Canada anymore, except for the FIBA carded officials.

New Brunswick is still using FIBA rules. I wish we did not, considering that it is pretty lonely right now. Quebec I believe is still using FIBA as well.

[Blackhawk357]

Originally posted by BktBallRef

Bottom line, if B! did not obtain LGP on the spot prior to A1 leaving the floor, it's a PC. THat is true no matter what happened prior to the contact.

I'll bet that this is a typo?

Blackhawk

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally posted by Blackhawk357

I'll bet that this is a typo?

Nope, B1 doesn't have to attain a LGP before the shooter leaves his feet. B1 just has to take a spot on the floor- any spot facing any direction. B1 is then legally entitled to that spot if he gets there before A1 leaves his feet. If B1 doesn't move and A1 subsequently jumps into him, then it's a PC foul. LGP is not a factor in this call. That's what BBR's getting at, and he's right.