intentional foul?

[Mark T. DeNucci, Sr.]

I am sitting in the West Toledo Library as the 6th grader picks out books to take with us for our trip to Orlando. I do not have any rules books with me but the key to iraplamer3's question is the foul must be assessed as "an automatic intentional foul reguardless of the severity of the contact." As I stated in my original post in this thread the rule was amended in the mid-70's and it has since gone by the wayside because of other rules changes.

I am trying to remember the exact scenario but I remember having the play occur in one of my games the first year it was in the rules. Back in the 70's there were certain situations during a throw-in by Team A, that if Team B committed a common foul and Team A was not in the bonus, Team B's common foul would cause the ball to be put back into play with a jump ball, thereby causing Team A to lose the right to complete its throw-in because of Team B's foul. Therefore, the common foul by Team B was considered an intentional personal foul by definition.

I know that I promised to go up into the attic and research the play but I was supposed to be doing more important things today than playing on the internet. I promise to get the exact rule out for this thread as soon as possible after the First of the Year.

Happy Holidays!

MTD, Sr.