intentional foul?

[Mark T. DeNucci, Sr.]

Originally posted by lrpalmer3
I thought I read somewhere that if B1 fouls A2 before A1 releases the ball on a throw-in, it's an automatic intentional foul reguardless of the severity of the contact.

Did I make that up?

p.s. Just saw a "blarge" call in the UCLA-Mich State game. Lead SOLD the block. Center calmly showed block, then conceded.

By rule it is impossible to have a "blarge." Either the defender had a legal guarding position or he did not. A defender cannot have a legal guarding position and be guilty of a block.

MTD, Sr.