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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Tue Dec 07, 2004, 10:16am
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Question

The "Plane Violation?" thread made me wonder about a player committing a foul while making a throw-in. A1, making a throw-in, reaches over the plane and pushes B1, or A1 uses his arm to clear out the arms of B1, or as in "Plane Violation?" A1, with one foot out of bounds, begins to step inbounds and commits a charging foul against B1. The ball is live, but there is no player control. I can't find any rule to suggest that A1, by touching B1, has attained an inbounds location. Is it just a common foul? I don't think it makes any differnce whether he has released the ball.

Rick

PS Will somebody please find a grammatical error so I will feel like I belong?
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Tue Dec 07, 2004, 10:23am
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Wink

Quote:
Originally posted by Rick Durkee
I don't think it makes any differnce whether he has released the ball.

Rick

PS Will somebody please find a grammatical error so I will feel like I belong?

difference.......feel better??
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Tue Dec 07, 2004, 10:28am
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Much Better!

YESSSSS!
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Old Tue Dec 07, 2004, 11:50am
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Quote:
Originally posted by mdray
Quote:
Originally posted by Rick Durkee
I don't think it makes any differnce whether he has released the ball.

Rick

PS Will somebody please find a grammatical error so I will feel like I belong?

difference.......feel better??
Thanks, md. I'll sleep easier knowing someone is on grammar patrol when I'm off duty.

About the play, I have absolutely no clue. I suppose it's at least a throw-in violation. I don't know about the foul.
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  #5 (permalink)  
Old Tue Dec 07, 2004, 11:54am
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No books with me (I'm actually listening to my students practice for a winter concert), but I think I would go with a warning for breaking the plane first. If it happens again I'd think its a T. Interesting situation though, I'm looking forward to hearing everyone else on this one.
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  #6 (permalink)  
Old Tue Dec 07, 2004, 12:05pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by Rick Durkee
The "Plane Violation?" thread made me wonder about a player committing a foul while making a throw-in. A1, making a throw-in, reaches over the plane and pushes B1, or A1 uses his arm to clear out the arms of B1, or as in "Plane Violation?" A1, with one foot out of bounds, begins to step inbounds and commits a charging foul against B1. The ball is live, but there is no player control. I can't find any rule to suggest that A1, by touching B1, has attained an inbounds location. Is it just a common foul? I don't think it makes any differnce whether he has released the ball.

Rick

You have described a couple of different situations.

Quote:
Originally posted by Rick Durkee
The "Plane Violation?" thread made me wonder about a player committing a foul while making a throw-in. A1, making a throw-in, reaches over the plane and pushes B1, or A1 uses his arm to clear out the arms of B1."
I am crossing my arms and calling an intentional foul in this case.


Quote:
A1, with one foot out of bounds, begins to step inbounds and commits a charging foul against B1. The ball is live, but there is no player control. I can't find any rule to suggest that A1, by touching B1, has attained an inbounds location. Is it just a common foul? I don't think it makes any differnce whether he has released the ball.
In this case I would call a common foul. There is no player control nor team control until the ball has been controled on court.
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  #7 (permalink)  
Old Tue Dec 07, 2004, 09:46pm
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Ref in PA (RIP? RiPA?),

Thanks, and good point about the intentional.

Rick
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  #8 (permalink)  
Old Thu Dec 16, 2004, 07:41am
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There was a play in our CA study guide this year that had the defender fouling the thrower during a throw-in, but the thrower had extended his arms and the ball through the boundary plane into the inbounds side. The contact was on the arm of the thrower while attempting to legally steal the ball on the inbounds side of the boundary plane.
The ruling given was a common foul.

I would therefore also call a NONintentional foul on the thrower if he reached inbounds and fouled a defender during the throw-in. If he had not yet released the ball, I have PC, and don't award the bonus. This would be a great question to pose to the NFHS committee for an interpretation though.
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  #9 (permalink)  
Old Thu Dec 16, 2004, 07:47am
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Quote:
Originally posted by Nevadaref

I would therefore also call a NONintentional foul on the thrower if he reached inbounds and fouled a defender during the throw-in. If he had not yet released the ball, I have PC, and don't award the bonus. This would be a great question to pose to the NFHS committee for an interpretation though.
A PC foul on a player who doesn't have player control? You may wanna re-think that one.
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  #10 (permalink)  
Old Thu Dec 16, 2004, 08:41am
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I think the "reach through and push" scenario should (and can) be called an intentional foul, the contact is not automatically an intentional foul (as in when the defender reaches across the plane and fouls the inbounder). (9-2 Penalty)

In the second situation, A1 is a player, the ball's live - common foul.
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