Test Question #40

[bob jenkins]

Originally posted by ChuckElias
Good point, Camron. I was assuming that the player doing the goaltending would be the first one into the lane, but that's not a valid assumption. Nice catch.

Except that 4-22 specifically says "... or an OPPONENT of the free thrower touches the ball ..."

[blindzebra]

I know the rule book just says player, but how can an offensive player commit a goaltending?

Every lob pass for a dunk would qualify as goaltending.

[Joel Poli]

Goaltending can not occur on a lob "pass". Goaltending can only be called during a field goal try or tap.

[ChuckElias]

Originally posted by bob jenkins

Except that 4-22 specifically says "... or an OPPONENT of the free thrower touches the ball ..."

Good point, Bob. I was assuming that Camron had read the rule, but that's not a valid assumption. Nice catch.

So. . . I was right in the first place, but for the wrong reason?

[blindzebra]

Originally posted by Joel Poli
Goaltending can not occur on a lob "pass". Goaltending can only be called during a field goal try or tap.

You are assuming shot or pass in many cases. The offense is trying to put the ball in the basket what advantage is gained by goaltending?

[Camron Rust]

Originally posted by ChuckElias

Good point, Bob. I was assuming that Camron had read the rule, but that's not a valid assumption. Nice catch.

So. . . I was right in the first place, but for the wrong reason?

OK, then what do we have IF a teammate of the FT shooter does touch the ball outside of the cynlinder? The try would end at that point (definition of FT ending) so at a minimum, it would be a FT violation since the try ended without being successful or hitting the rim. Is that all?

As Bob pointed out, it appears it is NOT a GT violation.

[ChuckElias]

Originally posted by Camron Rust
OK, then what do we have IF a teammate of the FT shooter does touch the ball outside of the cynlinder? The try would end at that point (definition of FT ending) so at a minimum, it would be a FT violation since the try ended without being successful or hitting the rim. Is that all?

As Bob pointed out, it appears it is NOT a GT violation.

Since B1 violated first, should we have offensive GT and then give a replacement FT for B1's lane violation?

[Dan_ref]

Originally posted by blindzebra

You are assuming shot or pass in many cases. The offense is trying to put the ball in the basket what advantage is gained by goaltending?

I'm not sure I get what you're saying - but advantage has nothing to do with it. GT by rule can only occur on a shot.

[BktBallRef]

You're more likely to have BI on a lob pass.

[bob jenkins]

Originally posted by Camron Rust
As Bob pointed out, it appears it is NOT a GT violation.

Actually, I think it is (or should be). IIRC:

1) Pre-1997, the rule read that anyone could GT on a FT.

2) The rule was changed so that players couldn't enter the lane until the ball hit the basket or backboard.

3) The GT rule was changed to refer only to defensive players, since the ball was immediately dead if an offensive player entered the lane (either an offensive violation or a double-violation).

4) The FT rule was changed to penalize only the defense if the defense entered first, followed by the offense.

At this point, the GT rule should have been changed back so that either team could GT on a FT, but the change wasn't made.

IMO, an oversight by the rules committee. Not of major concern because I've never seen nor heard of GT on a FT, much less by the offense, much less following a lane violation by the defense.