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Old Fri Mar 12, 2004, 08:11pm
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Join Date: Aug 1999
Location: In the offseason.
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Quote:
Originally posted by Hawks Coach
rainmaker
That's why I was asking Camron which cases he was referring to, but in retrospect, I realize that it was probably so disjointed that my point was not at all made. o, in the interest of being cler. . .

Camron!
In your opinion, is a pass by A1 that hits the ref then contacts A1 in the knee a violation on A1? Or does A1 have to touch the ball with one or both hands after it strikes the ref? I say the latter, but I wasn't clear what you position was.
This is certain getting into the realm of wacky plays!!

But, why not...

It'd have to be a controlled/deliberate touch...not a richochet.

This is really getting into pure judgement of what to do and probably depends mostly on how the actions are interpreted. I'm sure this one could have a few supportable conclusions.
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