good question

[rainmaker]

Originally posted by just another ref
The other night during a discussion of advantage/disadvantage I heard something I had never heard before. How is there ever a 3 point play? A shooter is fouled in the act and the shot goes in, so how was he put at a disadvantage? I said to myself I don't have a good answer to that question when you put it that way. But I bet I know where I can find one.

The answer is that you've asked the wrong question. The issue is bigger than advantage/disadvantage. In soccer, if there's a drive toward the goal, and the defense fouls, but the offense gets the ball in the goal anyway, then no foul is called. Basketball has a different set of rules, and is viewed differently. The shots are often not to make up for a disadvantage but to penalize an illegal action. If the foul is a little ticky-tack, and the ball goes in, you just let it go, but if it's a good hard foul that needs to be called, you call it regardless of the bucket. The free throw(s) are for penalty, not for restitution.