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Old Tue Mar 09, 2004, 12:00am
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The other night during a discussion of advantage/disadvantage I heard something I had never heard before. How is there ever a 3 point play? A shooter is fouled in the act and the shot goes in, so how was he put at a disadvantage? I said to myself I don't have a good answer to that question when you put it that way. But I bet I know where I can find one.
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Old Tue Mar 09, 2004, 12:12am
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Lightbulb Had this discussion quite a few times before.

Well if we had the search engine still active, you would be able to see the conversation that we have had on this very topic several times.

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Old Tue Mar 09, 2004, 12:19am
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Re: Had this discussion quite a few times before.

Quote:
Originally posted by JRutledge
Well if we had the search engine still active, you would be able to see the conversation that we have had on this very topic several times.

Peace
I felt sure that this had probably come up before, but I don't recall reading anything on the subject. Is there a simple, obvious answer that I am overlooking?
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Old Tue Mar 09, 2004, 01:05am
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Try going to http://www.google.com and clicking advanced search, time in officialforum.com in the url area and then type your search.
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Old Tue Mar 09, 2004, 06:19am
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Quote:
Originally posted by just another ref
The other night during a discussion of advantage/disadvantage I heard something I had never heard before. How is there ever a 3 point play? A shooter is fouled in the act and the shot goes in, so how was he put at a disadvantage? I said to myself I don't have a good answer to that question when you put it that way. But I bet I know where I can find one.

I say it is a MAJOR DISADVANTAGE to the shooter to get fouled. If we allowed the defense to "foul" on every play and NOT call a foul on the defense if the ball goes in. It will be a VERY rough game and players will get hurt.

Occasionally players do get hurt when they get fouled, although often, not enough to come out of the game, but enough to bother them while playing.

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Old Tue Mar 09, 2004, 09:49am
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Quote:
Originally posted by just another ref
The other night during a discussion of advantage/disadvantage I heard something I had never heard before. How is there ever a 3 point play? A shooter is fouled in the act and the shot goes in, so how was he put at a disadvantage? I said to myself I don't have a good answer to that question when you put it that way. But I bet I know where I can find one.
The answer is that you've asked the wrong question. The issue is bigger than advantage/disadvantage. In soccer, if there's a drive toward the goal, and the defense fouls, but the offense gets the ball in the goal anyway, then no foul is called. Basketball has a different set of rules, and is viewed differently. The shots are often not to make up for a disadvantage but to penalize an illegal action. If the foul is a little ticky-tack, and the ball goes in, you just let it go, but if it's a good hard foul that needs to be called, you call it regardless of the bucket. The free throw(s) are for penalty, not for restitution.
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