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Old Thu Jan 08, 2004, 05:56pm
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I can see the point of not punishing the defense on a kick differently when the arrow is involved.

But what about punishing the offense when it was the defense that violated? If A violates on their own AP throw-in, it makes sense that they should lose the arrow, but if B violates it makes no sense at all to give the arrow to B. If B violates on a regular throw-in by kicking, there is basically a do-over. Why not the same priniciple when the arrow is involved?

After all, on that re-set, A may not need to use the arrow, for instance if B fouls, or even if A fouls. Then they have kept the arrow for future use. If you switch it on the violation, you have taken away the choice that should be rightfully A's about when to give up the arrow.
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