Quote:
Originally posted by BktBallRef
Quote:
Originally posted by JugglingReferee
I think if one violates before possession is gained, then we should penalize the violation, which is the kick. (That's what we do for A right - penalize the violation ono a throw-in.)
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We do penalize the violation. A gets the ball for a throw-in.
The arrow changes if the throw-in ends or A violates, correct? But if A fouls before the throw-in ends, they keep the arrow.
Using your prinicple that isn't fair to B. It's not their fault A fouled. Why should A get to keep the arrow?
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I play men's league tonight.
If I can't intercept an AP throw-in pass, I'm going to intentionally kick the ball. Why? Because A gets the ball back (what's the difference between me not kicking the ball and allowing them inbounds possession, /and/ giving them another throw-in?) plus loses the arrow because I was not quick enough to intecept the pass or am too lazy to even try. Either way, my team benefits the next time there is a held ball.
I always thought that the AP was to alternate rewarding the ball because of two players hustling to obtain control of the ball, not rewarding me the next arrow because I'm a lazy bum and will kick it just because.
[Edited by JugglingReferee on Jan 8th, 2004 at 03:49 PM]
Thu Jan 08, 2004, 04:41pm
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