Kick Ball on AP Throw-in

[rainmaker]

Originally posted by BktBallRef

We do penalize the violation. A gets the ball for a throw-in.

The arrow changes if the throw-in ends or A violates, correct? But if A fouls before the throw-in ends, they keep the arrow.

Using your prinicple that isn't fair to B. It's not their fault A fouled. Why should A get to keep the arrow?

I think what bothers me is that for A to get the ball for a throw-in doesn't seem like much of a penalty, when they already have the ball anyway, and there is the offsetting advantage for B of receiving the arrow. Why not redefine the throw-in to end when the ball is LEGALLY touched in-bounds, and then as with running the end-line, the offense wouldn't be penalized for B's violation.