As Soon As ...

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by thumpferee

Player zero? A1 (point guard) passes the ball to A2 a) After he/they ... b) before he/they return. Violation in b, correct? If yes then, in (a) A1 is player 1 not zero. So, if I'm understanding the rule correctly, what does time have to do with anything? Or "as soon as"? I'm assuming the "as soon as" in the CP was simply saying the pass was already released prior to A3's reentry. What am I missing here?

thumpferee: I agree with you that both the new rule language, and the casebook language, could be better.

The new purpose and intent of this rule is one of advantage and disadvantage, which is always subjective in nature.

When an advantage is gained by a player purposely leaving the court and being the first one to touch the ball or leaving the court to avoid a violation, an advantage is gained, and a violation has occurred.

While that point guard is dribbling, how much time can elapse until the screened player gets around the screen, catches up to his opponent, and properly and aggressively guards his opponent, before one decides that A3 has no longer gained any advantage by voluntarily going out of bounds? What if A3 makes a great V-cut to get open long after he came back inbounds and several seconds after the defensive player moved to cover him?

I don't believe that the NFHS allows us to consider such a time element in our interpretation on the court.

I liked the old rule. The NFHS claims that the old rule led to too many game stoppages when no advantage was gained.

... allows the game to continue without stoppage when the player’s actions did not create an advantage.

I disagree. I've been playing, coaching, watching, and officiating basketball since the mid-1960s, and I only observed the old rule called once.

I wish that the NFHS had just left well enough alone.

If it ain't broken, don't fix it.