backcourt question from Rulebox

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by dave9819

yes - the ball does not gain backcourt status until it touches the backcourt or a player with backcourt status touches it. Since the ball gained backcourt status as a result of a1 catching the ball in the backcourt, it is a backcourt violation.

Had the ball touched the floor in backcourt and then is caught by a1, it would not be a backcourt status since b was the last to touch the ball prior to the ball gaining backcourt status.

no

[Dave9819]

Originally Posted by Camron Rust

no

Why?

[just another ref]

To have a violation, A has to be last to touch in frontcourt and first to touch in backcourt.

[Dave9819]

Originally Posted by just another ref

To have a violation, A has to be last to touch in frontcourt and first to touch in backcourt.

Ah, that's right! My mistake.

[joelpoli]

doesn't A1 touching the ball that still has frontcourt status make A1 the "first to touch and the last to touch"?

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by joelpoli

doesn't A1 touching the ball that still has frontcourt status make A1 the "first to touch and the last to touch"?

A player can only have one status or the other. When the ball touches the player it instantly gains the status of that player.

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by joelpoli

doesn't A1 touching the ball that still has frontcourt status make A1 the "first to touch and the last to touch"?

No, but even if it did the rule says this....

* last to touch BEFORE the ball returns the the backcourt
* first to touch AFTER the ball returns to the backcourt

There is a time at which the ball returns to the backcourt....the instant it touches the floor or player in the backcourt.

So, if the ball, having been deflected by team B, next touches A1 who is in the backcourt, who was the last person to touch it before that point? Team B. No violation.

[so cal lurker]

So, a practical question from a non-re with a kid who plays. In the scenario here, is the end result that some officials are going to call it a BC violation because of the interp and others are going to no-call it because the interp makes not a lick of sense?

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by just another ref

To have a violation, A has to be last to touch in frontcourt and first to touch in backcourt.

Team A just has to be the last to touch when the ball had FC status, Team A's players do not have to touch the ball in the FC.

1) A1, in BC, throws pass that hits official standing in FC, ball bounces into BC, A2 retrieves ball...Violation

2) A1, in BC, throws pass that has backspin on it, it bounces in FC, and A2 standing in BC catches ball...violation.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

Team A just has to be the last to touch when the ball had FC status, Team A's players do not have to touch the ball in the FC.

Yeah, what he said.