backcourt question from Rulebox

[joelpoli]

A–1, who has the ball in the frontcourt passes the ball toward A–2. B–2 bats the ball to the floor in A’s frontcourt so it bounces toward the backcourt. A–1 runs into A’s backcourt and catches the ball before it strikes the floor.

The official rules this a backcourt violation. Is the official correct?

[bballref3966]

By rule (no) or by NFHS interpretation (yes)?

2007-08 interps
SITUATION 10: A1, in the team's frontcourt, passes to A2, also in the team's frontcourt. B1 deflects the ball toward Team A's backcourt. The ball bounces only in Team A's frontcourt before crossing the division line. While the ball is still in the air over Team A's backcourt, but never having touched in Team A's backcourt, A2 gains possession of the ball while standing in Team A's backcourt. RULING: Backcourt violation on Team A. Team A was still in team control and caused the ball to have backcourt status. Had A2 permitted the ball to bounce in the backcourt after having been deflected by B1, there would have been no backcourt violation. (4-4-1; 4-4-3; 9-9-1)

The bolded portion is what causes issues because the rule book doesn't state that "causing the ball to have backcourt status" is a violation.

[Raymond]

coachesNrefs, where are you?

Sent from my SPH-L900 using Tapatalk

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by dave9819

yes - the ball does not gain backcourt status until it touches the backcourt or a player with backcourt status touches it. Since the ball gained backcourt status as a result of a1 catching the ball in the backcourt, it is a backcourt violation.

Had the ball touched the floor in backcourt and then is caught by a1, it would not be a backcourt status since b was the last to touch the ball prior to the ball gaining backcourt status.

no

[Dave9819]

Originally Posted by Camron Rust

no

Why?

[just another ref]

To have a violation, A has to be last to touch in frontcourt and first to touch in backcourt.

[Dave9819]

Originally Posted by just another ref

To have a violation, A has to be last to touch in frontcourt and first to touch in backcourt.

Ah, that's right! My mistake.

[wyo96]

Originally Posted by bballref3966

By rule (no) or by NFHS interpretation (yes)?

2007-08 interps
SITUATION 10: A1, in the team's frontcourt, passes to A2, also in the team's frontcourt. B1 deflects the ball toward Team A's backcourt. The ball bounces only in Team A's frontcourt before crossing the division line. While the ball is still in the air over Team A's backcourt, but never having touched in Team A's backcourt, A2 gains possession of the ball while standing in Team A's backcourt. RULING: Backcourt violation on Team A. Team A was still in team control and caused the ball to have backcourt status. Had A2 permitted the ball to bounce in the backcourt after having been deflected by B1, there would have been no backcourt violation. (4-4-1; 4-4-3; 9-9-1)

The bolded portion is what causes issues because the rule book doesn't state that "causing the ball to have backcourt status" is a violation.

Does anyone have anything that contradicts this Interp? If not, the OP is a violation.

[joelpoli]

doesn't A1 touching the ball that still has frontcourt status make A1 the "first to touch and the last to touch"?

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by just another ref

To have a violation, A has to be last to touch in frontcourt and first to touch in backcourt.

Team A just has to be the last to touch when the ball had FC status, Team A's players do not have to touch the ball in the FC.

1) A1, in BC, throws pass that hits official standing in FC, ball bounces into BC, A2 retrieves ball...Violation

2) A1, in BC, throws pass that has backspin on it, it bounces in FC, and A2 standing in BC catches ball...violation.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by joelpoli

doesn't A1 touching the ball that still has frontcourt status make A1 the "first to touch and the last to touch"?

A player can only have one status or the other. When the ball touches the player it instantly gains the status of that player.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

Team A just has to be the last to touch when the ball had FC status, Team A's players do not have to touch the ball in the FC.

Yeah, what he said.

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by joelpoli

doesn't A1 touching the ball that still has frontcourt status make A1 the "first to touch and the last to touch"?

No, but even if it did the rule says this....

* last to touch BEFORE the ball returns the the backcourt
* first to touch AFTER the ball returns to the backcourt

There is a time at which the ball returns to the backcourt....the instant it touches the floor or player in the backcourt.

So, if the ball, having been deflected by team B, next touches A1 who is in the backcourt, who was the last person to touch it before that point? Team B. No violation.

[so cal lurker]

So, a practical question from a non-re with a kid who plays. In the scenario here, is the end result that some officials are going to call it a BC violation because of the interp and others are going to no-call it because the interp makes not a lick of sense?

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by so cal lurker

So, a practical question from a non-re with a kid who plays. In the scenario here, is the end result that some officials are going to call it a BC violation because of the interp and others are going to no-call it because the interp makes not a lick of sense?

Yep.