Batter wants a free pass

[Bfair]

Originally posted by Warren Willson


OTOH, intentionally hitting even 1 batter results in an automatic ejection WITHOUT WARNING under OBR 8.02(d).

But does the batter have to actually be hit?

Suppose you're in a game where the offense has just had a walk and two ripshot singles---allowing only single base advances by the runners. With bases loaded the next batter comes in and hits a monster grand slam. The next batter, who homered in his last at bat, comes to the plate and has a fastball delivered 2 inches behind his shoulders.

Is this cause to eject the picher without warning???

IMO, if you judge that the pitcher was intentionally throwing at the batter, then you should eject him. When the situation causes your judgment to believe the intent of the pitcher was to hit the batter, actually hitting the batter is not necessary, and a warning is not mandated. The penalty is for intentionally throwing at the batter---whether he hits him or not.


Freix