|
Fri May 03, 2013, 12:20pm
|
|||
|
|||
|
fair/foul - then catch/no-catch
I do it because I see others do it, but I've always wondered why we do it. This is an especially prevalent mechanic in MLB.
A flyball down down the right field line. The catch is made about 5-feet into fair territory. The umpire first signals that it's fair and then signals that it's a catch. First of all, if it's a catch, isn't the fact that it was caught in fair or foul territory irrelevant? Secondly, shouldn't the fact that it's catch (or not) be more important than to first indicate whether it was on the fair or foul side? Why does this odd mechanic exist? Just curious. 
|
| Bookmarks |
|
|
LinkBacks (?)
LinkBack to this Thread: https://forum.officiating.com/baseball/94939-fair-foul-then-catch-no-catch.html
|
||||
| Posted By | For | Type | Date | |
| AnswerParty | Why do they call it a foul ball line if the ball hits it its fair? | This thread | Refback | Fri Apr 18, 2014 01:41pm | |
|
Similar Threads
|
||||
| Thread | Thread Starter | Forum | Replies | Last Post |
| "Dead ball, personal foul, fair catch interference..." | BktBallRef | Football | 4 | Sun Aug 28, 2011 08:36pm |
| Fair catch or not | phansen | Football | 1 | Thu Aug 24, 2006 08:34pm |
| Catch or no catch(foul ball)? | illiniwek8 | Baseball | 2 | Sat Mar 25, 2006 07:16pm |
| Try after fair catch | lawref | Football | 21 | Wed Sep 17, 2003 03:48pm |
Threaded Mode
