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Old Wed Jul 23, 2003, 02:34am
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Quote:
Originally posted by bluduc
Warren you are correct on the foul ball. I ***- u-me (ed) OBR.
Your reply got me thinking.
We have a definition of a squeeze in OBR. A bunt attempt which does not apply here.
When does a steal attempt begin? Is going on the batted ball a steal. Does the runner have to be going before the pitch?
At the time of the pitch? Would a big lead be considerd a steal? Does FED have such a definition?
Your views please.
Although there is no written definition of the term "stealing" in OBR, the definition might be implied from a reading of OBR 10.08 dealing with stolen bases.

Basically, if the runner had begun his legitimate attempt to advance before the batter had struck the ball, that should be considered "stealing" on the pitch.

That is separate and distinct from the scorer's award of a stolen base, requiring that the runner be "...unaided by a hit, a put out, an error, a force-out, a fielder's choice, a passed ball, a wild pitch or a balk ...".

If the runner had delayed his legitimate attempt to advance until after the batter had struck the ball, that would be a hit-and-run play and should not be considered as "stealing".

Taking any "lead" - long, short or intermediate - and holding it until the ball is hit should NOT be considered a legitimate attempt to advance. [cf OBR 8.05 End Note(b) - Pro interpretation requires a "legitimate attempt to advance" before the pitcher is absolved from throwing to an unoccupied base; taking a long lead, or faking an advance and returning, would NOT qualify as a legitimate attempt to advance]

Hope this helps

Cheers

[Edited by Warren Willson on Jul 23rd, 2003 at 02:42 AM]
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