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-   -   Detached equipment (OBR) (https://forum.officiating.com/baseball/92309-detached-equipment-obr.html)

David Emerling Fri Aug 31, 2012 08:58am

Detached equipment (OBR)
 
I need an OBR ruling on this:

Nobody on, nobody out. The batter swings at a pitch in the dirt for strike three. The ball squirts away from the catcher by only a couple feet and he is having a difficult time finding it. The batter begins to sprint to 1st. The catcher removes his mask and eventually finds the ball at his feet. Using his mask, he scoops the ball into his glove and then throws the runner out at 1st.

Again, using OBR - would the batter-runner get a 1 or 2 base award?

Thanks!

Matt Fri Aug 31, 2012 09:04am

Umm...this is simple. What does 7.04e say?

mbyron Fri Aug 31, 2012 09:23am

Every live ball has one of three statuses: it's a batted ball, a thrown ball, or a pitch.

The detached equipment rule applies penalties based on the status of the ball. Which one is it in your case when the detached equipment contacts the ball?

David Emerling Fri Aug 31, 2012 10:11am

Quote:

Originally Posted by mbyron (Post 852957)
Every live ball has one of three statuses: it's a batted ball, a thrown ball, or a pitch.

The detached equipment rule applies penalties based on the status of the ball. Which one is it in your case when the detached equipment contacts the ball?

The reason I ask is because I was having a discussion with another umpire who pointed out that rule 7.04(e), unlike all the other detached equipment rules, does not require an instantly dead ball. It also says that it does not apply to the batter.

7.04(e) Each runner, other than the batter, may without liability to be put out, advance one base when a fielder deliberately touches a pitched ball with his cap, mask or any part of his uniform detached from its proper place on his person. The ball is in play, and the award is made from the position of the runner at the time the ball was touched.

So, in his opinion, since the ball is not dead, and the batter is not awarded any bases, the catcher would need to throw out the batter. Any other runners would be awarded at least one base.

I disagreed because I said that there is no batter in this scenario. Because it was an uncaught third strike, there is no batter. The batter has become a batter-runner, who is a runner, not a batter. Therefore, the provisions of 7.04(e) would apply and the "batter" would be awarded 1-base.

mbyron Fri Aug 31, 2012 10:22am

Quote:

Originally Posted by David Emerling (Post 852965)
I disagreed because I said that there is no batter in this scenario. Because it was an uncaught third strike, there is no batter. The batter has become a batter-runner, who is a runner, not a batter. Therefore, the provisions of 7.04(e) would apply and the "batter" would be awarded 1-base.

You are correct.

Rita C Fri Aug 31, 2012 10:23am

Quote:

Originally Posted by David Emerling (Post 852965)
The reason I ask is because I was having a discussion with another umpire who pointed out that rule 7.04(e), unlike all the other detached equipment rules, does not require an instantly dead ball. It also says that it does not apply to the batter.

7.04(e) Each runner, other than the batter, may without liability to be put out, advance one base when a fielder deliberately touches a pitched ball with his cap, mask or any part of his uniform detached from its proper place on his person. The ball is in play, and the award is made from the position of the runner at the time the ball was touched.

So, in his opinion, since the ball is not dead, and the batter is not awarded any bases, the catcher would need to throw out the batter. Any other runners would be awarded at least one base.

I disagreed because I said that there is no batter in this scenario. Because it was an uncaught third strike, there is no batter. The batter has become a batter-runner, who is a runner, not a batter. Therefore, the provisions of 7.04(e) would apply and the "batter" would be awarded 1-base.

Agreed.

Rita

MD Longhorn Fri Aug 31, 2012 10:43am

Quote:

Originally Posted by David Emerling (Post 852965)
The reason I ask is because I was having a discussion with another umpire who pointed out that rule 7.04(e), unlike all the other detached equipment rules, does not require an instantly dead ball. It also says that it does not apply to the batter.

7.04(e) Each runner, other than the batter, may without liability to be put out, advance one base when a fielder deliberately touches a pitched ball with his cap, mask or any part of his uniform detached from its proper place on his person. The ball is in play, and the award is made from the position of the runner at the time the ball was touched.

So, in his opinion, since the ball is not dead, and the batter is not awarded any bases, the catcher would need to throw out the batter. Any other runners would be awarded at least one base.

I disagreed because I said that there is no batter in this scenario. Because it was an uncaught third strike, there is no batter. The batter has become a batter-runner, who is a runner, not a batter. Therefore, the provisions of 7.04(e) would apply and the "batter" would be awarded 1-base.

The rule should not have "other than the batter" - it only confuses the issue. But the reason it's there is so that we don't put batters on first base when someone hits the ball with detached equipment on a passed ball or wild throw on stolen base, etc. A NON-batted ball.

Rita C Fri Aug 31, 2012 10:51am

Quote:

Originally Posted by mbcrowder (Post 852970)
The rule should not have "other than the batter" - it only confuses the issue. But the reason it's there is so that we don't put batters on first base when someone hits the ball with detached equipment on a passed ball or wild throw on stolen base, etc. A NON-batted ball.

Of course, a dropped third strike isn't batted either...:p

Rita

mbyron Fri Aug 31, 2012 10:58am

Quote:

Originally Posted by mbcrowder (Post 852970)
The rule should not have "other than the batter" - it only confuses the issue.

I suspect it confuses only those who don't understand the distinction between a batter and a batter-runner. David Emerling's interlocutor, for instance. :)

MD Longhorn Fri Aug 31, 2012 12:42pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by mbyron (Post 852974)
I suspect it confuses only those who don't understand the distinction between a batter and a batter-runner. David Emerling's interlocutor, for instance. :)

Yes, but just saying RUNNER was good enough. It's like saying... All vegetables, other than tomatoes, come from the leaf, stem, or root of the plant.

Rita C Fri Aug 31, 2012 09:26pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by mbcrowder (Post 852982)
Yes, but just saying RUNNER was good enough. It's like saying... All vegetables, other than tomatoes, come from the leaf, stem, or root of the plant.

Well that isn't correct either.

Rita

mbyron Sat Sep 01, 2012 06:33am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Rita C (Post 853006)
Well that isn't correct either.

Rita

Actually, I see his point. "All runners, other than the batter..." is misleading because the batter is NOT a runner.

"All vegetables, other than tomatoes..." has the same problem, kinda. The only tiny quibble is that the term 'vegetables' is not botanically on a par with 'fruits', but that's the tiniest of nits.

Rita C Sat Sep 01, 2012 11:22am

Quote:

Originally Posted by mbyron (Post 853025)
Actually, I see his point. "All runners, other than the batter..." is misleading because the batter is NOT a runner.

"All vegetables, other than tomatoes..." has the same problem, kinda. The only tiny quibble is that the term 'vegetables' is not botanically on a par with 'fruits', but that's the tiniest of nits.

It's just that all squash and cucumbers are also "fruit" like tomatoes are "fruit". Which is why his sentence (and analogy) doesn't work.

And while we are at it, the whole idea that tomatoes are fruit came from a customs or tarif designation. It was never botanical.

Rita

Lapopez Sat Sep 01, 2012 12:40pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Rita C (Post 853031)
It's just that all squash and cucumbers are also "fruit" like tomatoes are "fruit". Which is why his sentence and analogy doesn't work.

And while we are at it, the whole idea that tomatoes are fruit came from a customs or tarif designation. It was never botanical.

Rita

From my high school biology teacher: if there's a seed, it's a fruit. It doesn't have to be edible. That "helicopter business" (he was referring to maple tree seeds, for example), --> fruit.

mbyron Sat Sep 01, 2012 07:03pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Rita C (Post 853031)
It's just that all squash and cucumbers are also "fruit" like tomatoes are "fruit". Which is why his sentence (and analogy) doesn't work.

And while we are at it, the whole idea that tomatoes are fruit came from a customs or tarif designation. It was never botanical.

Rita

Apologies for hijacking. A fruit is a botanical, not merely a customs, category. Vegetable is not.

Not sure where you got your info, Rita.


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