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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Thu Apr 24, 2003, 12:28pm
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Rule 8-2-8 (FED) says that a runner must re-touch his base after a dead ball. On an uncaught foull, he must return to the base occupied at the T.O.P.

I had a coach ask me this morning at school what the penalty was for this. There is none listed that I can find, but it seems absurd that there is none. What is it? When is this called, immediately upon the ball becoming live? Is this an appeal play?

If there were no penalty, then as a coach I would have my runners move to within about a foot of the next base on every uncaught foul. Then when the pitcher gets a ball and steps ont he rubber, I'd have him touch the next base.
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Old Thu Apr 24, 2003, 12:34pm
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Arrow

Except that the umpire will not put the ball back into play until all runners have returned to their base (or the vicinity of their base).
And we know that all upires DO put the ball back into play after every dead ball (including fouls) as required by the book!!!! (Don't we?)

Roger Greene

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Old Thu Apr 24, 2003, 12:38pm
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Was it Dick Groat who attempted the "89-foot lead" before the league clarified the rule?
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Old Thu Apr 24, 2003, 12:46pm
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Seems to me...

That the failure to retouch after a dead ball puts the runner in jeopardy. Once that runner gets to a succeeding base, the runner may not return to the preceding base , the defense could appeal the failure to retouch.

That is, R1 fails to retouch on a foul ball, and on the next pitch, R1 steals second. The defense could then appeal the failure to retouch 1B.

(I can't back this up with anything. )

mick

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Old Thu Apr 24, 2003, 01:06pm
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So, if I were the coach, I can just have my kid take the 89 foot lead. If the umpire puts the ball in play, then I'm home free.

Seems to me to be an illegal advance, that there is no penalty for. Strange.
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Old Thu Apr 24, 2003, 01:09pm
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Re: Mick,

Quote:
Originally posted by Tim C
there is nothing to back up your ruling . . .

The return touch has become, over the years, an "unchecked" requirement.

As long as the runner returns to the vicinity of the base he has, for the intent of the rule, correctly complied.

In OBR, NCAA and FED the intenet is to stop an illegal advance, let's not make it more than that.

As soon as the PU puts the ball back into play the runner has complied with the rule. This is one reason it is very important for the PU to recognize the original AND the current positioning of all base runners.

There is no right of appeal on this play.

Tee
Tee,
I agree with your assessment and that, too, is the way I use the rule.
It's just one of those 'customary' things that I have a problem living with, ...although I do live with 'em.
mick
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Old Thu Apr 24, 2003, 01:40pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by Illini_Ref
So, if I were the coach, I can just have my kid take the 89 foot lead. If the umpire puts the ball in play, then I'm home free.

Seems to me to be an illegal advance, that there is no penalty for. Strange.
Except for 10-2-3L and 3-3-1g4.
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Old Thu Apr 24, 2003, 09:27pm
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Didn't FED clarify?

I could be mistaken I don't have my notes with me, but wasn't this included in the list of "official interpretations" last year.

I think their interpretation was that the runner did NOT have to touch the bag, just be in the vicinity as Tee and others have noted.

Thanks
David
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  #9 (permalink)  
Old Fri Apr 25, 2003, 12:37am
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Let's get serious. The umpire is not going to put the ball back in play if the guy is 3/4 of the way to the next base leading off.

Now, the umpire will put the ball back in play without a retouch if the runner is in the vicinity of his lead-off position.

Now is an advantage if the runner is a few feet farther down the line then right on the base? Yes, there is...for the defense. Easy pickin's in my estimation. So why would the runner do that?

He wouldn't, so don't worry about it. If the runner roams too far away, I am sure the pitcher know what to do (if the ump doesn't)!
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