Tag up?

[DownTownTonyBrown]

R1 is stealing. Batter swings and pops up. At what point does the runner not need to return to 1st and tag up? To require that the runner be at 2nd before the ball is hit (to separate the plays into a steal and a attempted hit)seems overly restrictive... but I think this is the correct ruling.

[thumpferee]

R1 is stealing. Batter swings and pops up. At what point does the runner not need to return to 1st and tag up?

Runner does NOT need to return and tag up if: (a) It's the 3rd out or (b) He wants to get out. (lotsa punn intended)

[Jerry]

Tony,
R1 would have had to reach 2nd Base before the Time of the Pitch to avoid having to tag up; not the time of the hit. (i.e. once F1 begins a motion to pitch . . . I'm paraphrasing . . . is the T.O.P.). What you're describing seems to be a "hit and run" play, where R1 is off and running at the time of the pitch. He'd have to tag up in that case . . . and assuming the situation warranted it. (Not the 3rd out, interference/obstruction, etc.)

[Bfair]

Originally posted by DownTownTonyBrown
R1 is stealing. Batter swings and pops up. At what point does the runner not need to return to 1st and tag up? To require that the runner be at 2nd before the ball is hit (to separate the plays into a steal and a attempted hit)seems overly restrictive... but I think this is the correct ruling.

If a runner advanced uncontested and made it to his next base before the TOP, then that becomes his base "at TOP."

Furthermore, if such occurrence happened and the batter merely hit a foul ball, R1 would remain at 2B since he acquired the base prior to the TOP.

I've never seen it happen, but if the timing is so close that I'm in doubt, I'm providing benefit of doubt to the offense since the defense elected not to play on him.


Freix