The Official Forum  

Go Back   The Official Forum > Baseball
Register FAQ Community Calendar Today's Posts Search

 
 
LinkBack Thread Tools Rate Thread Display Modes
Prev Previous Post   Next Post Next
  #1 (permalink)  
Old Fri Apr 18, 2003, 08:05pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: May 2001
Location: Seattle, WA
Posts: 13
Question

OBR (LL Jrs.), bases loaded, 1 out, pitcher in set position and has come set. F4 breaks for 2B and F1 flinches his upper body as if turning to throw in that direction, without separating his hands or lifting his leg. F1 then apparently thinks better of throwing to 2B and returns his focus (and squares his shoulders) to 3B, and is motionless again before beginning a delivery (at which time the umpire wakes up and balks the flinch toward 2B).

My immediate reaction on calling it was that it was a feint to 2B without a step, and therefore a balk. But It Is Impossible to Balk to Second Base! Is that because a feint usually can't be distinguished from the start of a pitching motion, and thus can't be considered a balk "to 2B," as opposed to a balk for failing to complete the delivery? Here, if that sneaky little F4 was letting us in on what F1 was thinking, has he unwittingly disproven the theorem that IIITBTSB?

By the way, this was a balk, right?
Reply With Quote
 

Bookmarks


Posting Rules
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is On
Trackbacks are On
Pingbacks are On
Refbacks are On



All times are GMT -5. The time now is 01:15am.



Search Engine Friendly URLs by vBSEO 3.3.0 RC1