OBR (LL Jrs.), bases loaded, 1 out, pitcher in set position and has come set. F4 breaks for 2B and F1 flinches his upper body as if turning to throw in that direction, without separating his hands or lifting his leg. F1 then apparently thinks better of throwing to 2B and returns his focus (and squares his shoulders) to 3B, and is motionless again before beginning a delivery (at which time the umpire wakes up and balks the flinch toward 2B).
My immediate reaction on calling it was that it was a feint to 2B without a step, and therefore a balk. But It Is Impossible to Balk to Second Base! Is that because a feint usually can't be distinguished from the start of a pitching motion, and thus can't be considered a balk "to 2B," as opposed to a balk for failing to complete the delivery? Here, if that sneaky little F4 was letting us in on what F1 was thinking, has he unwittingly disproven the theorem that IIITBTSB?
By the way, this was a balk, right?
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