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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Mon Apr 07, 2003, 06:02pm
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batterĀ“s count: 0-0. Pitcher balks but delivers a ball. If it was strike, the pitch does not count. Just to be sure. In this case?. Opinions please, thank you.
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Mon Apr 07, 2003, 06:27pm
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Location: Spokane, WA
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No pitch...all codes.

In OBR, this is provided that batter and runners did not advance on the play.

If the runners would advance by being forced to their next base then ball four, ignore the balk.

FED" Immediate deadball. Enforce the balk.

[Edited by GarthB on Apr 7th, 2003 at 06:47 PM]
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Old Mon Apr 07, 2003, 06:43pm
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PENALTY: The ball is dead, and each runner shall advance one base without liability to be put out, unless the batter reaches first on a hit, an error, a base on balls, a hit batter, or otherwise, and all other runners advance at least one base, in which case the play proceeds without reference to the balk.

GB.I do not understand how a batter could reach first on a base on balls, i.e. his count is 3 balls, if one disregard such pitch on a balk.
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Old Mon Apr 07, 2003, 07:03pm
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Southump:

You did not state where the runner was. In OBR as I mentioned above, it makes a difference.

If we have R1 alone, R1 & R2 or R1, R2, R3 all runners and the batter will advance on the pitch we will ignonre the balk.

However, if we had R2 alone, R2 & R3, R3 alone or R1 & R3, we will ingore the pitch and enforce the balk.

Okay?

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  #5 (permalink)  
Old Tue Apr 08, 2003, 06:24pm
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of course! one of these days i finally will learn the rules.
Thanks GarthB, the example did it
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