referee.com quiz

David Emerling · #1 (**permalink**) Fri Mar 14, 2003, 02:17pm

I was going through some of the questions on the free quiz that is available on referee.com and the following question came up.

You are supposed to determine which choices apply to NFHS, NCAA, or PRO. I don't do college ball so I was only interested in NFHS and PRO.

4. R2 is on second with no outs when B1 hits a ground ball to F6 in the baseline. R2 hinders F6, but F6 still fields the ball.
a. The ball is immediately dead
b. The ball is delayed dead
c. R2 is out
d. B1 is out
e. B1 is out if retired by ordinary play
f. R2 and B1 are both always automatically out
g. F6 has committed obstruction
h. R2 is awarded third base
i. B1 is awarded first base

Answers below ...

According to the answer sheet, the answers are the same for all three sets of rules: a, c, and i

I was surprised to see that answer (i) would apply for NFHS. I thought that the umpire could call out B1 if, in the umpire's opinion, the fielder could have thrown him out. Would it make any difference if the ball had hit R2, causing him to be out? Couldn't the umpire also call out B1? What's the difference?

David Emerling
Memphis, TN

nine01c · #2 (**permalink**) Fri Mar 14, 2003, 03:00pm

When a batted ball hits an umpire or runner (before passing a fielder, not counting the pitcher), then the ball is dead, that runner is OUT, BR gets 1B, and all other runners (if there are any) return to their TOP bases. BR is credited with a base hit, provided it was not an infield fly.

In your play, only R2 is out. In order for BR to be called OUT also, the umpire must judge that R2 interfered with obvious intent to break up a double play (which of course isn't the situation here). 7.09(g) and 7.09(l)

I guess there isn't any difference in the outcome of these two plays.

David Emerling · #3 (**permalink**) Fri Mar 14, 2003, 03:11pm

Quote:

Originally posted by nine01c
When a batted ball hits an umpire or runner (before passing a fielder, not counting the pitcher), then the ball is dead, that runner is OUT, BR gets 1B, and all other runners (if there are any) return to their TOP bases. BR is credited with a base hit, provided it was not an infield fly.

In your play, only R2 is out. In order for BR to be called OUT also, the umpire must judge that R2 interfered with obvious intent to break up a double play (which of course isn't the situation here). 7.09(g) and 7.09(l)

I guess there isn't any difference in the outcome of these two plays.

But I was mostly wondering about the FED (i.e. NFHS) ruling in this situation. Unlike PRO where a second out can not be called unless a runner *intentionally* interferes for the purpose of breaking up a double play; in FED, that second out *can* be called, whether intentional or not. I thought this would be an example where the second out could/should be called since F6 fielded the ball so routinely.

However, I agree 100% with your analysis from an OBR point-of-view.

David Emerling
Memphis, TN

nine01c · #4 (**permalink**) Fri Mar 14, 2003, 07:09pm

David:

I do not umpire under FED code, but I will take a guess, especially since the answer is already given by the practice quiz. I believe that we (umpires) can't assume that this BR would have been thrown out, regardless of the interference. Suppose he made a bad throw and it went out of play into the stands? We can't assume the out. But even more to the point, this is NOT a double play situation (as in a force play, I mean). In the possible double play situation where you call the BR out also, the umpire must judge that the interference was intentional (OBR). Why? I think it is because we can't assume the successful double play in ordinary play (without the intentional interference). If I am offtrack, perhaps a FED umpire can add insight.

Patrick Szalapski · #5 (**permalink**) Fri Mar 14, 2003, 07:56pm

Since F6 was hindered as he was fielding the batted ball, it is very unlikely that, absent the interference, he could have tagged R2 and thrown out the BR. I agree with the others here; I see little justification in calling a double play; no double play was likely or even reasonably possible.

From a punitive standpoint, the offense is being penalized enough by the lead runner's out.

P-Sz

Bfair · #6 (**permalink**) Sat Mar 15, 2003, 12:40am

A very legitimate question, David, especially after reviewing this Fed caseplay:

While the umpire certainly has the right to call out B1 in your scenario, I think most would base their judgment on whether a DP was a possible outcome of the ground ball had the play been absent of the interference. While that may not be exactly per the rule, I believe that is how most that I have seen apply their judgment.

Just my opinion,

Freix

DownTownTonyBrown · #7 (**permalink**) Sun Mar 16, 2003, 08:00pm

Dave,

I'm not sure I understand your reasoning. You don't question the correctness of answer

a. The ball is immediately dead

Yet you question the correctness of answer

i. B1 is awarded first base

The ball is dead due to the interference (and generally this call would be made during the process of fielding, before F6 has completed fielding the ball). B1 has made a hit you must do something with him... put him on 1st.

David Emerling · #8 (**permalink**) Sun Mar 16, 2003, 08:50pm

Quote:

Originally posted by DownTownTonyBrown
Dave,

I'm not sure I understand your reasoning. You don't question the correctness of answer

a. The ball is immediately dead

Yet you question the correctness of answer

i. B1 is awarded first base

The ball is dead due to the interference (and generally this call would be made during the process of fielding, before F6 has completed fielding the ball). B1 has made a hit you must do something with him... put him on 1st.

I agree that the ball is immediately dead as a result of the interference. But, under FED rules, my understanding is that the umpire still had the latitude to call B1 out if he thought that that would have been the logical outcome of the play. I'm just asking.

David Emerling
Memphis, TN