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  #14 (permalink)  
Old Fri May 20, 2011, 02:22pm
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Location: Canada
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
If the defender bobbles the ball and must move, *he* is generally not protected. *Another* fielder might be, however.
So given the following scenario, a ball is hit to F5 who bobbles the ball towards F6. Both F5 and F6 are moving to the ball to make a play and both have legitimate chances to make a play.......F6 would be protected but not F5?

Would "generally" mean that if he still had a chance to make a play then F5 would be protected?

Does it really come down to the fact then that a defensive player, who the umpire deems has a chance to make a play, is protected from interference by an offensive player? Regardless of what took place before the interference?
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