Pitch or throw?

cb33 · #1 (**permalink**) Wed May 04, 2011, 05:42pm

Bases loaded, two outs, and the runner on third takes a long lead as if he is going to break for the plate.

Pitcher sees him, steps off the rubber and throws to the catcher behind the plate. The batter swings at the ball and drives it off the right field fence for a double.

What's the correct ruling? Is this a pitch, or a throw to an infielder and thus not a legal pitch? Can you provide OBR ruling in such an instance? Thanks for the help

Rich Ives · #2 (**permalink**) Wed May 04, 2011, 06:08pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by cb33

Bases loaded, two outs, and the runner on third takes a long lead as if he is going to break for the plate.

Pitcher sees him, steps off the rubber and throws to the catcher behind the plate. The batter swings at the ball and drives it off the right field fence for a double.

What's the correct ruling? Is this a pitch, or a throw to an infielder and thus not a legal pitch? Can you provide OBR ruling in such an instance? Thanks for the help

He stepped off. What does that make him? Can that type of player deliver a pitch?

rbmartin · #3 (**permalink**) Wed May 04, 2011, 08:24pm

8.01 (e) If the pitcher removes his pivot foot from contact with the pitcher's plate by stepping backward with that foot, he thereby becomes an infielder...

7.09 (d) It is interference by a batter or a runner when before two are out and a runner on third base, the batter hinders a fielder in making a play at home base; the runner is out;

PENALTY FOR INTERFERENCE:
The runner is out and the ball is dead.

Coach Dykhoff · #4 (**permalink**) Wed May 04, 2011, 09:18pm

That is an interesting rule.

May I tell my pitcher to step off and hit the batter to get an out in this situation? (Not that I would)

Or does one have an arguement that there was no play at the plate due to the runner not actually stealing home?

rbmartin · #5 (**permalink**) Wed May 04, 2011, 09:45pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Coach Dykhoff

May I tell my pitcher to step off and hit the batter to get an out in this situation?

Section 2.00 (definitions) INTERFERENCE: (a) Offensive interference is an act by the team at bat which interferes with...

To interfere requires the transgressor to commit an act. Standing there getting hit in the butt doesn't meet this requirement IMO.

Mrumpiresir · #6 (**permalink**) Wed May 04, 2011, 09:47pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Coach Dykhoff

That is an interesting rule.

May I tell my pitcher to step off and hit the batter to get an out in this situation? (Not that I would)

Or does one have an arguement that there was no play at the plate due to the runner not actually stealing home?

The batter being hit by a throw would not be out (providing he did not intentionally interfere).

In the OP the batter would be out for batting a throw that was an attempt to retire a runner.

Coach Dykhoff · #7 (**permalink**) Wed May 04, 2011, 09:49pm

Would it be concidered a rat move if I tried to get the batter to hit the ball in this situation from my pitcher?

David B · #8 (**permalink**) Wed May 04, 2011, 10:33pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Coach Dykhoff

Would it be concidered a rat move if I tried to get the batter to hit the ball in this situation from my pitcher?

YES!

Thanks
David

Coach Dykhoff · #9 (**permalink**) Wed May 04, 2011, 10:37pm

Haha ok, just checking.

bob jenkins · #10 (**permalink**) Thu May 05, 2011, 06:50am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Coach Dykhoff

Would it be concidered a rat move if I tried to get the batter to hit the ball in this situation from my pitcher?

To do that might mean (or be interpreted) that your F1 made a pitching motion while not on the rubber. That's a whole different rule.

MD Longhorn · #11 (**permalink**) Thu May 05, 2011, 09:51am

Quote:

Originally Posted by rbmartin

8.01 (e) If the pitcher removes his pivot foot from contact with the pitcher's plate by stepping backward with that foot, he thereby becomes an infielder...

7.09 (d) It is interference by a batter or a runner when before two are out and a runner on third base, the batter hinders a fielder in making a play at home base; the runner is out;

PENALTY FOR INTERFERENCE:
The runner is out and the ball is dead.

Incorrect. Why bold the rule if you're going to unbold the part that makes it not apply to the current situation.

The BATTER is out in the OP.

TussAgee11 · #12 (**permalink**) Thu May 05, 2011, 10:10am

Yes, you always have an out on this play, but with less than 2 outs you nail RUNNER and with 2 outs you nail BATTER.

rbmartin · #13 (**permalink**) Thu May 05, 2011, 03:08pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

Incorrect. Why bold the rule if you're going to unbold the part that makes it not apply to the current situation.

The BATTER is out in the OP.

Thanks. I forgot the OP specified 2 outs. My bad. Batter is out in OP.

HokieUmp · #14 (**permalink**) Fri May 06, 2011, 11:43am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Coach Dykhoff

May I tell my pitcher to step off and hit the batter to get an out in this situation? (Not that I would)

Free speech being what it is, you can tell your pitcher anything you want.

However, that tactic will start a beanball war and/or get your F1 - and likely you, if the umpire knows** you ordered it - ejected.

**granted, not that likely, unless you were unwise enough to yell it out loud at the time of the play or something.

Robmoz · #15 (**permalink**) Tue May 31, 2011, 01:58pm

Say no outs, runner is put out as a result of the BR interference, what happens to BR then, does he contnue to bat?

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