mbyron, thats just it. I am sure F2 was throwing to first to retire B/R, however B/R was already out as first base was occupied at TOP. If F2 was throwing to second then I know I can get R1 out regardless if thrown out or not on the interferrence.

Would you reward the defense on this play and get the out at second even if the defense did not actually earn it because they threw to the wrong base? F2 should have known the situation: first base occupied at TOP with less than two outs means B/R cannot advance to first base on a dropped third strike. R1 can steal second all he wants which means F2 should throw to second to retire R1, not to first to get B/R.

Would you leave R1 at second because F2 screwed up and threw to the wrong base or would you simply send R1 back to first?

At the point the B/R pushes F2, it is a dead ball, and someone has to pay the price for the interference by the B/R. You can't call a second out on the batter and it doesn't quite matter where F2 was going to throw after that. The runner closest to home would be R1 and he or she would be out.

Exactly right. I'm killing it on the intentional push (the retired BR must do something to interfere -- merely running to 1B is not illegal, even if it draws a throw). The push is an infraction that is punished with an out, assuming that the defense might have been able to record an out.

And the bar is pretty low for that judgment: if the ball is near the catcher, then I'm probably judging that they might have made an out. If it's all the way to a backstop 60 feet behind the plate, then I'll probably kill it and send the runners back without calling an additional out.

+1

Got Ya, thanks.