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Umpmazza Tue Feb 01, 2011 11:03pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by dash_riprock (Post 724968)
The placement of R3 is at the discretion of the umpire.

well actually it is not.. we just went over all this at Harry's.. and had a question very similar to this play..

dash_riprock Tue Feb 01, 2011 11:17pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Umpmazza (Post 724970)
well actually it is not.. we just went over all this at Harry's.. and had a question very similar to this play..

"All runners shall be awarded the bases they would have reached had there been no obstruction." That isn't umpire discretion?

DG Tue Feb 01, 2011 11:51pm

I don't see a correct answer. Obstructed runner being played upon advances one base, ball is dead and all other runners are awarded the base they would have achieved, absent the dead ball. Since R3 was thrown out at home it is not likely he would have achieved home so he should not be awarded home, he should be returned to 3b since the ball was dead when the out was made. C is closest answer but don't seem right to me.

Can't see an out after a dead ball, and hard to see R3 awarded home since he can't reasonably be expected to have achieved it absent the obstruction. I am assuming that R3 did not pull up and stop running when type 1 obstruction was called and that was reason for him being thrown out, in which case C is surely correct.

In any event C is best answer of the ones provided.

Umpmazza Wed Feb 02, 2011 06:38pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by dash_riprock (Post 724972)
"All runners shall be awarded the bases they would have reached had there been no obstruction." That isn't umpire discretion?

yes in type "B" obstruction.

bob jenkins Wed Feb 02, 2011 06:52pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Umpmazza (Post 725397)
yes in type "B" obstruction.

It also applies in Type A obstruction -- to all the runners who weren't obstructed, and to the obstructed runner if the award is beyond the one base minimum.

Durham Thu Feb 03, 2011 01:29am

Quote:

Originally Posted by DG (Post 724982)
I don't see a correct answer. Obstructed runner being played upon advances one base, ball is dead and all other runners are awarded the base they would have achieved, absent the dead ball. Since R3 was thrown out at home it is not likely he would have achieved home so he should not be awarded home, he should be returned to 3b since the ball was dead when the out was made. C is closest answer but don't seem right to me.

Can't see an out after a dead ball, and hard to see R3 awarded home since he can't reasonably be expected to have achieved it absent the obstruction. I am assuming that R3 did not pull up and stop running when type 1 obstruction was called and that was reason for him being thrown out, in which case C is surely correct.

In any event C is best answer of the ones provided.

This is a HTBT type of play, but imagine this. R1 is obstructed and tagged out, this then allows the fielder to throw home and get R3 before he can score. I am not going to assume that he would have scored, but if he is about half way when obs occurs, I am gonna score him based on common sense and fair play. Who screwed up? I am not gonna then bail them out on anything where the offense had a chance to score. The OP doesn't tell us how close the play was at the plate. I also want to know why it wasn't killed when type 1 took place.

TussAgee11 Thu Feb 03, 2011 03:10pm

It seems test writers get wacky scenarios in their head which evaluate the test takers' ability to turn words into situations on the field and infer things rather than just test rules knowledge and application. This is one of them.

I'd answer (c) and wait for TTS to call BS on the question during the review session.

All you need to know is that when a play is being made on an OBS runner, the ball is dead immediately. That runner is awarded the next base automatically, and more if in the umpire's judgment he would have achieved them. All other runners are placed where they would have been had OBS not occurred, in the umpire's judgment. They may advance automatically as well if forced by the obstructed runner's advancement.

UmpTTS43 Thu Feb 03, 2011 03:26pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by TussAgee11 (Post 725820)
It seems test writers get wacky scenarios in their head which evaluate the test takers' ability to turn words into situations on the field and infer things rather than just test rules knowledge and application. This is one of them.

I'd answer (c) and wait for TTS to call BS on the question during the review session.

All you need to know is that when a play is being made on an OBS runner, the ball is dead immediately. That runner is awarded the next base automatically, and more if in the umpire's judgment he would have achieved them. All other runners are placed where they would have been had OBS not occurred, in the umpire's judgment. They may advance automatically as well if forced by the obstructed runner's advancement.

TS, Nebraska. Just for clarification.


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