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Old Fri May 28, 2010, 07:27am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by pruett3 View Post
It seems like the same move to me. Just to a different base. I understand what the rule says. Why is 1st base treated differently than any other base?
It's been that way for over a century. (First, feints to all bases were allowed, then no feints were allowed (this lasted for only a short time -- 1 year?), then the current rule -- no feints to first.)

I know that doesn't answer "why" it's this way -- but I don't see it changing soon.
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